A nurse is assessing a client who has Cushing's syndrome. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
Hyperpigmentation
Weight loss
Hypotension
Diaphoresis
The Correct Answer is A
A. Hyperpigmentation: This can occur due to increased production of melanin-stimulating hormones in some cases of Cushing's syndrome.
B. Weight loss: Weight loss is not a common feature of Cushing's syndrome. Instead, it usually presents with weight gain, particularly in the trunk and face (leading to "moon face" and "buffalo hump").
C. Hypotension: Hypotension is more common in Addison's disease due to the lack of cortisol and aldosterone. Cushing's syndrome is associated with hypertension due to excess cortisol increasing blood pressure.
D. Diaphoresis: Excessive sweating is not a common symptom of Cushing's syndrome.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. HbA1c = 5.6%. HbA1c measures the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. A level of 5.6% is within the normal range (below 5.7%), indicating good glycemic control. This suggests that the client’s diabetes is well managed, potentially indicating that the beta cells are functioning well and insulin sensitivity has improved.
B. Client reports smoking cessation: While smoking cessation is very beneficial for overall health and can improve diabetes management, it does not directly indicate beta cell function restoration. It is more related to reducing cardiovascular risks and improving long-term health outcomes.
C. Weight gain of 5 lb: Weight gain is not typically a sign of improving beta cell function. In fact, weight gain can sometimes indicate poor control of diabetes, as insulin resistance can worsen with increased weight. It is not a direct measure of beta cell activity.
D. Fasting blood glucose of 140 mg/dL: A fasting blood glucose of 140 mg/dL is above the normal range and suggests poor glycemic control, indicating that beta cells are not functioning adequately to maintain normal glucose levels. This value points to ongoing issues with insulin resistance or secretion.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic: Administering a nebulized beta-adrenergic agonist (such as albuterol) is the highest priority because it rapidly opens the airways by relaxing the bronchial smooth muscle. This intervention is crucial for immediate relief of bronchospasm and improving ventilation during an asthma exacerbation.
B. Initiating oxygen therapy: While oxygen therapy is important for maintaining adequate oxygenation, it does not address the underlying bronchoconstriction. Therefore, it is secondary to bronchodilator administration in terms of priority.
C. Providing immediate rest for the client: Rest is important, but it is not an immediate priority in an acute asthma exacerbation. The primary focus should be on improving airway patency and breathing.
D. Positioning the client in high-Fowler's: Positioning the client in high-Fowler's position can help facilitate breathing and maximize lung expansion, but it does not address the acute bronchospasm. Thus, it is a supportive measure rather than the highest priority.
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