Which of these clients is at greatest risk for umbilical cord prolapse?
A client who is pregnant with twins
A client who has gestational hypertension
A client who has oligohydramnios
A client who has placenta previa.
The Correct Answer is C
The correct answer is choice C. A client who has oligohydramnios.
Oligohydramnios is a condition where there is too little amniotic fluid around the fetus. This can cause the umbilical cord to slip down into the cervix or vagina before the baby, resulting in cord prolapse.
Cord prolapse can cut off the blood and oxygen supply to the baby and cause fetal distress or death.
Choice A is wrong because a client who is pregnant with twins is not at greater risk for cord prolapse unless there is also malpresentation of the fetuses, such as breech or transverse lie.
Choice B is wrong because a client who has gestational hypertension is not at greater risk for cord prolapse unless there is also polyhydramnios, which is excessive amniotic fluid around the fetus.
Choice D is wrong because a client who has placenta previa is not at greater risk for cord prolapse unless there is also artificial rupture of membranes by doctors.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choiceA.
The nurse should instruct the client to avoid lifting anything heavier than the newborn for 6 weeks.This is because lifting heavy objects can strain the abdominal muscles and the incision site, and increase the risk of bleeding and infection.
ChoiceBis wrong because the nurse should advise the client to wait at least 4 to 6 weeks before resuming sexual intercourse.This is to allow the incision to heal and prevent infection and discomfort.
ChoiceCis wrong because the nurse should not recommend ibuprofen for pain relief as it can interfere with blood clotting and increase bleeding.The nurse should suggest acetaminophen or a prescribed analgesic instead.
ChoiceDis wrong because the nurse should not tell the client to report any foul-smelling vaginal discharge to the provider.
The client should expect some vaginal discharge (lochia) for several weeks after a cesarean delivery, which may have a mild odor.However, the nurse should instruct the client to report signs of infection such as fever, chills, redness, swelling, or increased pain at the incision site.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
The correct answer is choice A. Uterine atony.
Uterine atony is the failure of the uterus to contract and retract after delivery, which can lead to excessive bleeding and hemorrhage.A boggy uterus on palpation is a sign of uterine atony.
Choice B. Uterine inversion is wrong because it is a rare complication in which the uterus turns inside out and protrudes through the cervix.It usually causes severe pain, shock, and hemorrhage.
Choice C. Uterine rupture is wrong because it is a life-threatening emergency in which the uterus tears open along the scar line of a previous cesarean delivery or other uterine surgery.It usually causes severe abdominal pain, fetal distress, and maternal hypovolemic shock.
Choice D. Uterine infection is wrong because it is an inflammation of the endometrium (the lining of the uterus) caused by bacteria.It usually causes fever, foul-smelling lochia, and lower abdominal tenderness.
Normal ranges for postpartum bleeding are about 500 ml for vaginal delivery and 1000 ml for cesarean delivery.The uterus should feel firm and midline at or below the umbilicus after delivery.
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