Which statement about phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is accurate?
It is used to relieve pain from urinary irritation
It should be taken with an antibiotic until both medications are gone
It is contraindicated for clients with urinary tract infection to use
The drug will relieve discomfort almost immediately
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain, burning, and irritation in the urinary tract by exerting a topical anesthetic effect on the uroepithelium. It is commonly used for symptomatic relief in UTIs, making this statement accurate, as it directly addresses its therapeutic role in managing urinary discomfort.
Choice B reason: Phenazopyridine is used short-term (typically 2 days) for symptom relief, not necessarily until an antibiotic course is completed. Antibiotics treat the underlying UTI, while phenazopyridine addresses symptoms. This statement is inaccurate, as their durations are independent, based on clinical need, not synchronized completion.
Choice C reason: Phenazopyridine is not contraindicated in UTIs; it is specifically indicated for symptomatic relief in these infections. It does not treat the infection but alleviates discomfort. This statement is inaccurate, as phenazopyridine is a standard adjunctive therapy in UTI management for pain relief.
Choice D reason: Phenazopyridine provides relief within hours, not almost immediately. Its onset requires absorption and distribution to the urinary tract, typically taking 1-2 hours. This statement is inaccurate, as the relief, while rapid, is not instantaneous, and patients should be informed of the expected timeframe.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Humulin R (regular insulin) has an onset of 30-60 minutes and peaks at 2-3 hours. Taking a snack at 0900-0930, immediately after injection, is too early, as insulin action is minimal, and glucose from the meal may cause hyperglycemia before insulin peaks, making this timing inappropriate.
Choice B reason: Humulin R peaks at 2-3 hours (1100-1200 for a 0900 dose), when hypoglycemia risk is highest due to maximum glucose uptake. A snack or meal at 1100-1130 provides glucose to counter insulin’s peak effect, preventing low blood sugar, making this the most appropriate timing.
Choice C reason: By 1400-1430, Humulin R’s effect (duration 5-8 hours) is waning, reducing hypoglycemia risk. A snack at this time is less critical, as insulin’s glucose-lowering action is declining. This timing is less effective for preventing hypoglycemia compared to the peak action period at 1100-1130.
Choice D reason: At 1700-1730, Humulin R’s effect is nearly gone (duration 5-8 hours), making hypoglycemia unlikely from the 0900 dose. A snack this late is irrelevant to the insulin’s action, as glucose levels are stabilized, making this timing inappropriate for preventing hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: GABA, an inhibitory neurotransmitter, is not the primary target of antidepressants like SSRIs or tricyclics. These drugs focus on monoamines (serotonin, norepinephrine). GABAergic drugs, like benzodiazepines, treat anxiety, not depression. This statement is inaccurate, as antidepressants do not enhance GABA efficacy in the limbic system or cortex.
Choice B reason: SSRIs and tricyclics block reuptake of serotonin and/or norepinephrine in the synaptic cleft, increasing their availability to stimulate postsynaptic receptors. This enhances monoamine signaling, alleviating depressive symptoms. This statement is accurate, as reuptake inhibition is the shared mechanism across these antidepressant classes, targeting mood-regulating neurotransmitters.
Choice C reason: Dopamine receptor antagonism is not a mechanism of antidepressants but is associated with antipsychotics like haloperidol. While some antidepressants indirectly affect dopamine, it is not their primary action. This statement is inaccurate, as SSRIs and tricyclics focus on serotonin and norepinephrine, not dopamine receptor blockade.
Choice D reason: Antagonizing serotonin receptors would reduce serotonin signaling, counteracting antidepressant effects. SSRIs and tricyclics increase serotonin availability via reuptake inhibition, not receptor blockade. This statement is inaccurate, as blocking serotonin receptors is not a mechanism of action for these depression treatments.
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