Which statement about phenazopyridine (Pyridium) is accurate?
It is used to relieve pain from urinary irritation
It should be taken with an antibiotic until both medications are gone
It is contraindicated for clients with urinary tract infection to use
The drug will relieve discomfort almost immediately
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Phenazopyridine is a urinary analgesic that relieves pain, burning, and irritation in the urinary tract by exerting a topical anesthetic effect on the uroepithelium. It is commonly used for symptomatic relief in UTIs, making this statement accurate, as it directly addresses its therapeutic role in managing urinary discomfort.
Choice B reason: Phenazopyridine is used short-term (typically 2 days) for symptom relief, not necessarily until an antibiotic course is completed. Antibiotics treat the underlying UTI, while phenazopyridine addresses symptoms. This statement is inaccurate, as their durations are independent, based on clinical need, not synchronized completion.
Choice C reason: Phenazopyridine is not contraindicated in UTIs; it is specifically indicated for symptomatic relief in these infections. It does not treat the infection but alleviates discomfort. This statement is inaccurate, as phenazopyridine is a standard adjunctive therapy in UTI management for pain relief.
Choice D reason: Phenazopyridine provides relief within hours, not almost immediately. Its onset requires absorption and distribution to the urinary tract, typically taking 1-2 hours. This statement is inaccurate, as the relief, while rapid, is not instantaneous, and patients should be informed of the expected timeframe.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Avoiding pain medication may increase discomfort, reducing mobility and increasing complications like atelectasis. Opioids can cause constipation, but this is managed with stool softeners, not avoidance. This statement is inaccurate, as pain control is essential for recovery and does not directly support wound healing.
Choice B reason: Excessive rest increases risks like venous thromboembolism or pneumonia, especially in obese patients. Early ambulation promotes circulation and wound healing without straining incisions if done cautiously. This statement is inaccurate, as limiting movement excessively hinders recovery and increases postoperative complications.
Choice C reason: Returning to normal activity too soon risks incision dehiscence or infection, particularly in obese patients with higher wound complication rates. Gradual activity increase under medical guidance is needed. This statement is inaccurate, as premature activity resumption can compromise healing and safety post-surgery.
Choice D reason: Adequate nutrition, especially high-protein intake, supports collagen synthesis and tissue repair, critical for wound healing. Obesity increases metabolic demand, and protein prevents malnutrition, enhancing immune response and incision strength. This statement is accurate, as nutrition is a priority to optimize postoperative recovery and prevent complications.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: SGLT-2 inhibitors, like empagliflozin, block sodium-glucose cotransporter 2 in the proximal tubule, preventing glucose reabsorption. This increases urinary glucose excretion, lowering blood sugar in type 2 diabetes. The mechanism is insulin-independent, reducing hyperglycemia and promoting weight loss, making this statement accurate for their primary action.
Choice B reason: SGLT-2 inhibitors do not interact with transcription factors to improve insulin sensitivity. This describes metformin’s action via AMPK activation in liver and muscle. SGLT-2 inhibitors act renally, not on transcription factors, making this statement inaccurate as it misattributes their mechanism to a different drug class.
Choice C reason: Inhibiting hepatic glucose production and increasing insulin sensitivity is metformin’s mechanism, not SGLT-2 inhibitors. SGLT-2 inhibitors work renally to excrete glucose, not by altering hepatic gluconeogenesis or peripheral insulin sensitivity. This statement is inaccurate, as it describes a different antidiabetic drug’s action.
Choice D reason: Blocking ATP-sensitive K+ channels is the mechanism of sulfonylureas, like glipizide, which stimulate insulin secretion from beta cells. SGLT-2 inhibitors act on renal glucose reabsorption, not beta cell channels. This statement is inaccurate, as it incorrectly assigns a sulfonylurea mechanism to SGLT-2 inhibitors.
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