A febrile client admitted for pneumonia becomes diaphoretic and flushed. What pathophysiological process does the nurse suspect?
The client’s core body temperature reached the new thermoregulatory set point and the body is trying to prevent overheating
An exogenous pyrogen is directly resetting the client’s thermoregulatory set point in the anterior pituitary
The client is experiencing hyperthermia and the body’s mechanisms to control heat are no longer working effectively
An endogenous pyrogen is stimulating the production of leukotrienes to increase the thermoregulatory set point of the hypothalamus
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: In fever, pyrogens reset the hypothalamic thermoregulatory set point, causing the body to raise core temperature via shivering and vasoconstriction. Once reached, diaphoresis and flushing occur to dissipate heat, preventing overheating. This statement accurately describes the body’s response to achieving the fever’s set point in pneumonia.
Choice B reason: Exogenous pyrogens (e.g., bacterial toxins) act via endogenous pyrogens (cytokines) to reset the hypothalamic, not anterior pituitary, set point. The pituitary regulates hormones, not thermoregulation. This statement is inaccurate, as it misidentifies the anatomical site and mechanism of fever induction.
Choice C reason: Hyperthermia involves uncontrolled heat gain (e.g., heat stroke), not a regulated fever like in pneumonia. The client’s diaphoresis and flushing indicate intact heat loss mechanisms, not failure. This statement is inaccurate, as fever, not hyperthermia, drives the observed symptoms in this scenario.
Choice D reason: Endogenous pyrogens (e.g., IL-1, IL-6) stimulate prostaglandins, not leukotrienes, to reset the hypothalamic set point in fever. Leukotrienes are involved in allergic responses, not thermoregulation. This statement is inaccurate, as it misattributes the biochemical mediator of fever in pneumonia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: A complete break with both ends aligned is a simple or non-displaced fracture, not a greenstick fracture. Greenstick fractures involve partial breakage with bending, common in children due to flexible bones. This description does not match the characteristic bending of greenstick fractures.
Choice B reason: A greenstick fracture is a partial break where one side of the bone bends and the other cracks, like a green twig. This occurs in children due to pliable bones with a thick periosteum. This description accurately depicts a greenstick fracture, making it the correct choice.
Choice C reason: A break with bone piercing the skin is a compound (open) fracture, not a greenstick fracture. Compound fractures involve complete bone disruption and skin penetration, unlike the partial, bending nature of greenstick fractures, making this description incorrect for the fracture type.
Choice D reason: A spiral break from twisting force is a spiral fracture, characterized by a helical pattern around the bone. Greenstick fractures involve bending, not twisting, and are partial breaks. This description is inaccurate, as it describes a different fracture mechanism unrelated to greenstick fractures.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Allopurinol does not directly target inflammation or pain in acute gout attacks; it lowers uric acid levels to prevent future attacks. Anti-inflammatories like NSAIDs or colchicine manage acute symptoms. This statement is inaccurate, as allopurinol’s role is preventive, not for acute symptom relief.
Choice B reason: Allopurinol inhibits xanthine oxidase, reducing uric acid production, which prevents urate crystal formation and gout attacks. It is used for long-term management of hyperuricemia. This statement is accurate, as decreased uric acid production is the primary mechanism, critical for patient education on its purpose.
Choice C reason: Kidney function tests are necessary with allopurinol, as it is renally excreted, and impaired renal function can increase toxicity risk (e.g., rash, interstitial nephritis). Monitoring ensures safe use, especially in gout patients with potential renal issues, making this statement inaccurate for discharge instructions.
Choice D reason: Limiting fluid intake to 1000cc daily is inappropriate; high fluid intake (2-3L/day) is recommended with allopurinol to prevent urate kidney stones by diluting urine. This statement is inaccurate, as it contradicts the need for hydration to support uric acid excretion and prevent complications.
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