Which statement best describes the pathophysiology of chronic bronchitis?
Acute infection of the pleural space causing lung collapse
Sudden, fully-reversible constriction of bronchial smooth muscle
Destruction of alveolar walls leading to decreased surface area for gas exchange
Chronic inflammation and mucus hypersecretion in the bronchi causing airway obstruction
The Correct Answer is D
A. Acute infection of the pleural space causing lung collapse is incorrect because this describes pneumothorax or pleuritis, not chronic bronchitis. Chronic bronchitis is a long-term airway disease, not an acute pleural condition.
B. Sudden, fully-reversible constriction of bronchial smooth muscle is incorrect because this describes asthma, which is characterized by reversible bronchospasm. Chronic bronchitis involves persistent airway changes that are not fully reversible.
C. Destruction of alveolar walls leading to decreased surface area for gas exchange is incorrect because this is the hallmark of emphysema, not chronic bronchitis. Emphysema primarily affects the alveoli, whereas chronic bronchitis affects the bronchi.
D. Chronic inflammation and mucus hypersecretion in the bronchi causing airway obstruction is correct because chronic bronchitis is defined as a productive cough lasting at least three months per year for two consecutive years. The disease involves chronic irritation and inflammation of the bronchial walls, leading to mucus gland hypertrophy and excessive sputum production. The mucus narrows the airways, causing airflow limitation, chronic cough, and increased susceptibility to respiratory infections. Over time, bronchial obstruction contributes to hypoxemia, hypercapnia, and, in advanced cases, pulmonary hypertension and cor pulmonale.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Ringworm is incorrect because ringworm (tinea) is a superficial fungal infection of the skin characterized by circular, scaly, and often itchy lesions. It is caused by dermatophytes and is not primarily an inflammatory reaction to irritants.
B. Eczema is correct because eczema, also known as atopic dermatitis, is a chronic inflammatory skin condition that results in redness, itching, and increased sensitivity to environmental irritants such as soaps, detergents, certain fabrics, or changes in temperature and humidity. The skin barrier is compromised, making the skin more prone to irritation, dryness, and secondary infections. Eczema often follows a relapsing course with flare-ups triggered by allergens or irritants.
C. Psoriasis is incorrect because psoriasis is a chronic autoimmune condition characterized by rapid proliferation of skin cells, leading to thick, silvery, scaly plaques. It is not primarily caused by external irritants, although trauma or stress can exacerbate it.
D. Impetigo is incorrect because impetigo is a highly contagious bacterial infection of the skin, typically caused by Staphylococcus aureus or Streptococcus pyogenes. It presents as vesicles or pustules that rupture and form honey-colored crusts. It is an infectious condition, not a chronic inflammatory response to irritants.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. Generalized skin redness is incorrect because this is not a hallmark of vaso-occlusive crises. Skin redness may occur with infection or inflammation, but it does not specifically indicate sickle-cell complications.
B. Bleeding gums is incorrect because bleeding tendencies are not typical of sickle-cell anemia. Bleeding gums are more commonly associated with platelet disorders or vitamin C deficiency, not vaso-occlusion.
C. Joint pain is correct because a vaso-occlusive crisis occurs when sickle-shaped red blood cells obstruct small blood vessels, leading to reduced blood flow, ischemia, and tissue hypoxia. This results in severe pain, often in the joints, bones, chest, or abdomen, which is the hallmark symptom of a crisis. Other accompanying signs may include fever, swelling, and tenderness in affected areas. These pain episodes can be sudden, severe, and recurrent.
D. Bradycardia is incorrect because vaso-occlusive crises do not typically cause bradycardia. In fact, patients may develop tachycardia as a compensatory response to anemia or pain.
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