Which treatment best applies to the care of a client newly diagnosed with infective endocarditis?

Complete bedrest for the duration of the treatment with subcutaneous enoxaparin.

Long-term anticoagulant therapy with IV heparin followed by oral warfarin.

Administration of IV penicillin, followed by oral penicillin for 10 weeks.

Hospitalization for initial IV antibiotics, followed by continued IV antibiotics at home.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Complete bedrest for the duration of the treatment with subcutaneous enoxaparin is not the best approach for managing infective endocarditis. While bed rest may be recommended initially to reduce cardiac workload, long-term bed rest is not necessary and could lead to complications such as muscle atrophy or thromboembolism. Subcutaneous enoxaparin is used for prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis, but it does not address the underlying infection.

Choice B reason: Long-term anticoagulant therapy with IV heparin followed by oral warfarin is not the standard treatment for infective endocarditis. Although anticoagulant therapy may be necessary in some cases, such as for patients with prosthetic valves or specific cardiac conditions, it is not the primary treatment for the infection itself. The focus should be on eradicating the infection with appropriate antibiotics.

Choice C reason: Administration of IV penicillin, followed by oral penicillin for 10 weeks, is not the typical treatment regimen for infective endocarditis. While penicillin may be part of the antibiotic therapy, the duration and route of administration need to be tailored to the specific causative organism and the patient's clinical condition. Usually, a combination of antibiotics and a specific treatment plan is developed based on culture and sensitivity results.

Choice D reason: Hospitalization for initial IV antibiotics, followed by continued IV antibiotics at home, is the best treatment approach for a client newly diagnosed with infective endocarditis. This allows for intensive management and monitoring during the critical initial phase of treatment, ensuring that the infection is adequately controlled. Transitioning to continued IV antibiotics at home provides the necessary long-term therapy while allowing the patient to recover in a familiar environment. This approach ensures compliance with the treatment regimen and reduces the risk of complications.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: The supine position is when a patient lies flat on their back. Although it is commonly used for many procedures and treatments, it is not the best position for improving oxygenation in clients with ARDS. Lying flat on the back can cause the lungs to become compressed, reducing the efficiency of gas exchange and potentially leading to further respiratory complications.

Choice B reason: The prone position, where the patient is lying face down, is the recommended position to improve oxygenation in clients with ARDS. Prone positioning helps to recruit more alveoli, improves ventilation-perfusion matching, and reduces the shunting of blood through non-ventilated areas of the lung. Studies have shown that placing patients in the prone position can significantly improve oxygenation and decrease mortality in ARDS patients.

Choice C reason: The lateral side position, where the patient lies on their side, can be used for patients with certain conditions or during recovery from some surgical procedures. However, it does not provide the same benefits for improving oxygenation in ARDS as the prone position does. Lateral positioning might help with comfort and prevent pressure sores, but it does not enhance lung function and gas exchange in the same way.

Choice D reason: The Semi-Fowler's position, where the patient's head and torso are elevated to a 30-45 degree angle, is useful for promoting respiratory comfort and reducing the risk of aspiration. While it can help improve ventilation and is beneficial for patients with respiratory distress, it does not offer the same degree of improvement in oxygenation for ARDS patients as the prone position.

A. Epidural hematoma. B. Ischemic stroke. C. Subarachnoid hemorrhage. D. Basilar skull fracture.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: An epidural hematoma is a type of traumatic brain injury where blood accumulates between the dura mater and the skull. While it can cause severe symptoms, including headache, loss of consciousness, and neurological deficits, it does not typically present with ecchymosis behind the ears (Battle's sign) or bleeding from the ears. These signs are more indicative of a basilar skull fracture.

Choice B reason: An ischemic stroke occurs when a blood clot blocks or narrows an artery leading to the brain, causing reduced blood flow and oxygen to the brain tissue. Symptoms of an ischemic stroke include sudden weakness, numbness, difficulty speaking, and vision problems. However, it does not cause ecchymosis behind the ears or bleeding from the ears, which are specific signs of a basilar skull fracture.

Choice C reason: A subarachnoid hemorrhage is bleeding into the space between the brain and the tissue covering the brain (subarachnoid space). It often presents with a sudden, severe headache, nausea, vomiting, and loss of consciousness. While it is a serious condition, it does not typically cause ecchymosis behind the ears or bleeding from the ears.

Choice D reason: A basilar skull fracture is

The correct answer. This type of fracture involves the base of the skull and can cause characteristic signs such as ecchymosis behind the ears (Battle's sign) and bleeding from the ears due to the proximity of the fracture to the auditory canal and other structures. These symptoms are key indicators of a basilar skull fracture and require immediate medical attention.

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Which treatment best applies to the care of a client newly diagnosed with infective endocarditis?

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What condition does the nurse suspect when a patient involved in a motor vehicle accident arrives at the emergency department with ecchymosis behind the ears and bleeding from the ears?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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