Which treatment best applies to the care of a client newly diagnosed with infective endocarditis?

Complete bedrest for the duration of the treatment with subcutaneous enoxaparin.

Long-term anticoagulant therapy with IV heparin followed by oral warfarin.

Administration of IV penicillin, followed by oral penicillin for 10 weeks.

Hospitalization for initial IV antibiotics, followed by continued IV antibiotics at home.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

Choice A reason: Complete bedrest for the duration of the treatment with subcutaneous enoxaparin is not the best approach for managing infective endocarditis. While bed rest may be recommended initially to reduce cardiac workload, long-term bed rest is not necessary and could lead to complications such as muscle atrophy or thromboembolism. Subcutaneous enoxaparin is used for prophylaxis against deep vein thrombosis, but it does not address the underlying infection.

Choice B reason: Long-term anticoagulant therapy with IV heparin followed by oral warfarin is not the standard treatment for infective endocarditis. Although anticoagulant therapy may be necessary in some cases, such as for patients with prosthetic valves or specific cardiac conditions, it is not the primary treatment for the infection itself. The focus should be on eradicating the infection with appropriate antibiotics.

Choice C reason: Administration of IV penicillin, followed by oral penicillin for 10 weeks, is not the typical treatment regimen for infective endocarditis. While penicillin may be part of the antibiotic therapy, the duration and route of administration need to be tailored to the specific causative organism and the patient's clinical condition. Usually, a combination of antibiotics and a specific treatment plan is developed based on culture and sensitivity results.

Choice D reason: Hospitalization for initial IV antibiotics, followed by continued IV antibiotics at home, is the best treatment approach for a client newly diagnosed with infective endocarditis. This allows for intensive management and monitoring during the critical initial phase of treatment, ensuring that the infection is adequately controlled. Transitioning to continued IV antibiotics at home provides the necessary long-term therapy while allowing the patient to recover in a familiar environment. This approach ensures compliance with the treatment regimen and reduces the risk of complications.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason: Completion of antibiotic therapy does not necessarily correlate with a decrease in the risk of infection in burn patients. While antibiotics can help manage existing infections, the risk for new infections remains until the burn wounds are fully healed. Open burn wounds provide a portal of entry for pathogens, and the presence of necrotic tissue can further increase infection risk.

Choice B reason: Returning albumin levels to normal can improve the overall nutritional status and healing process of a burn patient, but it does not directly reduce the risk of infection. Albumin levels are more indicative of the patient's nutritional status and fluid balance. The primary concern for infection risk remains the open burn wounds, which serve as a direct route for pathogens.

Choice C reason: Completion of the fluid resuscitation process is crucial for stabilizing a burn patient's hemodynamic status and ensuring adequate perfusion to tissues. However, fluid resuscitation does not directly impact the risk of infection. The risk of infection is predominantly related to the presence and extent of open burn wounds.

Choice D reason: The correct response is that the risk for infection significantly decreases when all of the burn wounds have closed. Closed wounds provide a barrier against pathogens and reduce the risk of infection. Wound closure can be achieved through natural healing or surgical interventions such as skin grafting. Until the wounds are fully closed, the patient remains at a high risk for infection.

A. Finger-stick glucose. B. Blood cultures x2. C. Tylenol 650 mg PO. D. Vancomycin 760 mg IV.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Finger-stick glucose is important for monitoring blood sugar levels, especially in septic patients who may develop hyperglycemia. However, it is not the highest priority compared to obtaining blood cultures and administering antibiotics.

Choice B reason: Obtaining blood cultures x2 is the first priority in managing a patient with sepsis. Identifying the causative organism and determining antibiotic susceptibility is crucial for guiding effective treatment. Blood cultures should be obtained before administering antibiotics to ensure accurate results.

Choice C reason: Tylenol (acetaminophen) 650 mg PO may be given to reduce fever and provide comfort, but it is not the highest priority in the initial management of sepsis. Immediate diagnostic and therapeutic interventions are more critical.

Choice D reason: Vancomycin 760 mg IV is an important antibiotic for treating sepsis, especially if a resistant organism is suspected. However, it should be administered after blood cultures are obtained to avoid contaminating the cultures and ensuring accurate identification of the causative organism.

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Which treatment best applies to the care of a client newly diagnosed with infective endocarditis?

Nursing Test Bank

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Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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