A 76-year-old patient is 2 days post-op total hip replacement. The patient puts his call light on to complain of difficulty catching his breath. As the nurse assesses the patient, she finds the patient tachypneic, tachycardic, and very anxious. The nurse determines these are most likely signs of:

Pulmonary embolism

Left-sided heart failure

Early onset dementia

Acute myocardial infarction

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A reason: Pulmonary embolism is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by blood clots that travel to the lungs from the legs or other parts of the body. The signs and symptoms include sudden shortness of breath, rapid breathing (tachypnea), rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and anxiety. These symptoms align with the patient's presentation and are common in the post-operative period, particularly after orthopedic surgery, which increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and subsequent pulmonary embolism.

Choice B reason: Left-sided heart failure can cause symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and fluid retention. However, the acute presentation of difficulty breathing, tachypnea, tachycardia, and anxiety in the context of recent surgery is more suggestive of a pulmonary embolism. Heart failure symptoms generally develop gradually rather than suddenly.

Choice C reason: Early onset dementia is not characterized by acute respiratory symptoms like difficulty breathing, tachypnea, or tachycardia. Dementia symptoms typically include memory loss, confusion, and changes in cognitive function, not the acute cardiorespiratory symptoms described in this scenario.

Choice D reason: Acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) can cause shortness of breath, chest pain, and rapid heart rate. While it is a possibility, the combination of recent surgery and the described symptoms more strongly suggests a pulmonary embolism. An acute myocardial infarction would typically also present with chest pain, which is not mentioned in this scenario.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: Explaining that diarrhea is expected and that it is how the body gets rid of ammonia is accurate. Lactulose is often prescribed for patients with hepatic encephalopathy, and its purpose is to reduce blood ammonia levels by promoting bowel movements. Diarrhea is a common and anticipated side effect, as it helps eliminate ammonia from the body.

Choice B reason: Recommending Kaopectate for loose stools is not appropriate in this context. Kaopectate is an anti-diarrheal medication, and using it would counteract the effect of lactulose, which aims to promote bowel movements to reduce ammonia levels.

Choice C reason: Instructing the patient to stop taking the medication until stools firm up is incorrect. Lactulose should be continued as prescribed to maintain its therapeutic effect of reducing blood ammonia levels. Stopping the medication would negate its benefits and potentially worsen the patient's condition.

Choice D reason: Suggesting to send a stool specimen to the laboratory is unnecessary in this scenario. Diarrhea is an expected side effect of lactulose, and there is no indication that a stool specimen needs to be analyzed unless there are signs of infection or other complications.

A. Monitor intake and output. B. Provide a low-sodium diet. C. Increase oral fluid intake. D. Weigh the patient daily.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: Monitoring intake and output is important in managing cirrhosis and ascites, as it helps track fluid balance and detect early signs of fluid retention. However, this action alone does not directly decrease the presence of ascites. It is more of a monitoring tool than an intervention that reduces fluid accumulation.

Choice B reason: Providing a low-sodium diet is a key intervention to decrease the presence of ascites in patients with cirrhosis. Sodium restriction helps prevent fluid retention by reducing the amount of sodium in the bloodstream, which in turn decreases the osmotic pressure that draws fluid into the abdominal cavity. This dietary modification is fundamental in the management of ascites.

Choice C reason: Increasing oral fluid intake is not an appropriate action for decreasing the presence of ascites in patients with cirrhosis. Excessive fluid intake can exacerbate fluid retention and worsen ascites. Instead, fluid intake may need to be restricted depending on the patient's condition and electrolyte balance.

Choice D reason: Weighing the patient daily is a useful tool for monitoring fluid status and detecting changes in ascites. However, similar to monitoring intake and output, this action does not directly decrease the presence of ascites. It serves as a means to track the effectiveness of other interventions, such as sodium restriction and medication.

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A 76-year-old patient is 2 days post-op total hip replacement. The patient puts his call light on to complain of difficulty catching his breath. As the nurse assesses the patient, she finds the patient tachypneic, tachycardic, and very anxious. The nurse determines these are most likely signs of:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse cares for a patient who is prescribed lactulose (Heptalac). The patient states, "I do not want to take this medication because it causes diarrhea." How would the nurse respond?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A nurse cares for a patient who has cirrhosis of the liver. What action would the nurse take to decrease the presence of ascites?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is reviewing the arterial blood gas values of a client who has chronic kidney disease. Which of the following sets of values should the nurse expect?

A nurse cares for a patient who has a heart rate averaging 54 beats/min with no adverse symptoms. Which activity modification would the nurse suggest to avoid further slowing of the heart rate?

Which specific drug therapy will the nurse anticipate for management of the client who has septic shock?

Which client should the telemetry nurse assess first after receiving the a.m. shift report?

A nurse admits a patient who is experiencing an exacerbation of heart failure. Drag and drop in order of priority actions.

The nurse has completed an assessment on a client with heart failure and a decreased cardiac output with an ejection fraction of 30%. Which finding should receive the highest priority?

A nurse is caring for a postoperative 70-kg patient who had major blood loss during surgery and now has acute kidney injury. The patient does not have signs of fluid overload. Which intervention would be most effective as a fluid challenge to promote kidney perfusion?

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