A 76-year-old patient is 2 days post-op total hip replacement. The patient puts his call light on to complain of difficulty catching his breath. As the nurse assesses the patient, she finds the patient tachypneic, tachycardic, and very anxious. The nurse determines these are most likely signs of:
Pulmonary embolism
Left-sided heart failure
Early onset dementia
Acute myocardial infarction
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Pulmonary embolism is a blockage in one of the pulmonary arteries in the lungs, usually caused by blood clots that travel to the lungs from the legs or other parts of the body. The signs and symptoms include sudden shortness of breath, rapid breathing (tachypnea), rapid heart rate (tachycardia), and anxiety. These symptoms align with the patient's presentation and are common in the post-operative period, particularly after orthopedic surgery, which increases the risk of deep vein thrombosis (DVT) and subsequent pulmonary embolism.
Choice B reason: Left-sided heart failure can cause symptoms such as shortness of breath, fatigue, and fluid retention. However, the acute presentation of difficulty breathing, tachypnea, tachycardia, and anxiety in the context of recent surgery is more suggestive of a pulmonary embolism. Heart failure symptoms generally develop gradually rather than suddenly.
Choice C reason: Early onset dementia is not characterized by acute respiratory symptoms like difficulty breathing, tachypnea, or tachycardia. Dementia symptoms typically include memory loss, confusion, and changes in cognitive function, not the acute cardiorespiratory symptoms described in this scenario.
Choice D reason: Acute myocardial infarction (heart attack) can cause shortness of breath, chest pain, and rapid heart rate. While it is a possibility, the combination of recent surgery and the described symptoms more strongly suggests a pulmonary embolism. An acute myocardial infarction would typically also present with chest pain, which is not mentioned in this scenario.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Maintaining nothing by mouth (NPO) and administering intravenous fluids is the best intervention to reduce discomfort in a patient with acute pancreatitis. NPO status helps to rest the pancreas by preventing the secretion of pancreatic enzymes that can exacerbate inflammation and pain. Intravenous fluids are essential to maintain hydration and electrolyte balance while the patient is not eating or drinking.
Choice B reason: Providing small, frequent feedings with no concentrated sweets is not appropriate for a patient with acute pancreatitis. The priority is to keep the patient NPO to rest the pancreas. Introducing any food can stimulate the pancreas and worsen the condition.
Choice C reason: Administering morphine sulfate intramuscularly every 4 hours as needed can help manage pain, but the preferred route for pain medication in acute pancreatitis is intravenous, as it provides quicker relief and avoids the discomfort of intramuscular injections. Pain management is important, but it should be part of a broader plan that includes NPO status and IV fluids.
Choice D reason: Positioning the patient in a flat, supine position is not recommended for reducing discomfort in acute pancreatitis. Patients often find relief in a semi-Fowler's position (head elevated) or by leaning forward, which can help reduce abdominal pain and pressure on the inflamed pancreas.
Correct Answer is ["B","C"]
Explanation
Choice A reason: Auscultating for irregular heart tones can provide useful information about the heart’s rhythm and potential arrhythmias. However, it is not the most specific or definitive assessment for diagnosing a myocardial infarction (MI).
Choice B reason: Assessing for ST elevations on continuous telemetry and 12-lead EKG is critical in diagnosing a myocardial infarction. ST-segment elevation is a key indicator of an acute MI, specifically indicating myocardial injury. Continuous telemetry and 12-lead EKG provide real-time and detailed views of the heart's electrical activity, helping to identify ischemic changes.
Choice C reason: Assessing for elevated Troponin levels is essential because Troponins are cardiac biomarkers that increase significantly when there is damage to the heart muscle, such as during an MI. Elevated Troponin levels are highly specific and sensitive indicators of myocardial infarction, making this assessment crucial.
Choice D reason: Assessing for low magnesium levels is not directly related to diagnosing a myocardial infarction. While magnesium levels are important for overall cardiac function, they do not specifically indicate an acute MI.
Choice E reason: Assessing the client's blood pressure is an important part of a comprehensive assessment and can provide information about the patient's hemodynamic status. However, it is not specific to diagnosing a myocardial infarction.
Choice F reason: Assessing if the pain radiates to the left arm is an important symptom of a myocardial infarction. However, while it supports the suspicion of an MI, it is not as definitive as ST elevation on an EKG or elevated Troponin levels.
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