Review RN ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN 11

Exam Review

RN ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN 11

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Total Questions : 57

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Question 1:

During a home health visit, a school-age child who has muscular dystrophy confides in the nurse that he was struck by his parents. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Report the incident to local authorities B. Check the child for injuries C. Refer the parent to a social service agency D. Enroll the parent in anger management classes

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Reporting the incident to local authorities is an important action, but it is not the first priority. The nurse should first assess the child's physical condition and provide any necessary care.

Choice B:

Checking the child for injuries is the first action the nurse should take, as the child may have sustained physical harm from the abuse. The nurse should document any findings and report them to the appropriate authorities.

Choice C:

Referring the parent to a social service agency is a helpful action, but it is not the first priority. The nurse should first ensure the child's safety and well-being.

Choice D:

Enrolling the parent in anger management classes is a potential intervention, but it is not the first priority. The nurse should first address the immediate needs of the child and the family.

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Question 2:

A nurse is planning a program about healthy eating at an elementary school where most students select French fries and pizza at lunch every day. Which of the following actions should the nurse plan to take first?

A. Give positive feedback to students who make appropriate choices. B. Help students recognize the value of making healthy food choices. C. Provide students with resources about making wise choices independently. D. Determine students' motivation to learn about healthy food choices.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Giving positive feedback to students who make appropriate choices is a good strategy to reinforce healthy eating, but it is not the first action that the nurse should take. The nurse should first assess the students' readiness to learn and their motivation to change their behavior.

Choice B:

Helping students recognize the value of making healthy food choices is an important goal of the program, but it is not the first action that the nurse should take. The nurse should first determine the students' current knowledge, attitudes, and beliefs about healthy eating and tailor the program accordingly.

Choice C:

Providing students with resources about making wise choices independently is a useful way to support their learning, but it is not the first action that the nurse should take. The nurse should first identify the barriers and facilitators that influence the students' food choices and address them in the program.

Choice D:

Determining students' motivation to learn about healthy food choices is the first action that the nurse should take. This is based on the principle of learner-centered education, which states that the nurse should assess the learners' needs, interests, and readiness to learn before planning and implementing the program.

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Question 3:

A nurse manager in a local community health agency is creating a job description for a new nurse who will practice community-oriented nursing. Which of the following should the nurse include in the job description? (Select all that apply)

A. Investigate potential health and environmental issues. B. Initiate support groups for parents of autistic children. C. Provide wound care for clients in their homes. D. Participate in local health surveillance activities. E. Provide health-related education to community groups.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Investigating potential health and environmental issues is a key function of community-oriented nursing, as it helps to identify and address the factors that affect the health of the population.

Choice B:

Initiating support groups for parents of autistic children is not a specific task of community-oriented nursing, as it focuses on a particular subgroup rather than the whole population. This is more aligned with community-based nursing, which provides care to individuals and families in their natural settings.

Choice C:

Providing wound care for clients in their homes is not a specific task of community-oriented nursing, as it focuses on individual needs rather than population needs. This is also more aligned with community-based nursing, which provides direct care to clients in their homes.

Choice D:

Participating in local health surveillance activities is a key function of community-oriented nursing, as it helps to monitor and evaluate the health status and trends of the population.

Choice E:

Providing health-related education to community groups is a key function of community-oriented nursing, as it helps to promote health and prevent disease among the population.

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Question 4:

A community health nurse is planning an educational program for a group of women who are postmenopausal. Which of the following outcomes is appropriate for this program?

A. Clients will schedule bone density screening. B. Clients will arrange for mammograms every 3 years. C. Clients will start hormone replacement therapy. D. Clients will significantly decrease caloric intake.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Scheduling bone density screening is an appropriate outcome for the program, as it helps to detect and prevent osteoporosis, a common condition among postmenopausal women. Bone density screening is recommended for women aged 65 years and older, or younger women with risk factors.

Choice B:

Arranging for mammograms every 3 years is not an appropriate outcome for the program, as it does not follow the current guidelines for breast cancer screening. The American Cancer Society recommends that women aged 45 to 54 years should have mammograms every year, and women aged 55 years and older should have mammograms every 2 years, or continue yearly screening if they prefer.

Choice C:

Starting hormone replacement therapy is not an appropriate outcome for the program, as it is not a universal recommendation for postmenopausal women. Hormone replacement therapy may have benefits and risks depending on the individual's health history, symptoms, and preferences. It should be discussed with a health care provider before starting.

Choice D:

Significantly decreasing caloric intake is not an appropriate outcome for the program, as it may lead to nutritional deficiencies and other health problems. Postmenopausal women should maintain a balanced diet that meets their nutritional needs and supports their weight management. A moderate reduction in caloric intake may be advised for overweight or obese women, but not a drastic one.

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Question 5:

A nurse is working with a care manager for a client who participates in a health maintenance organization. The nurse should identify that a health maintenance organization provides which of the following payment structures?

A. The client is participating in a fee-for-service health care insurance program. B. The provider is paid a fixed sum for the client on a monthly or yearly basis. C. The client pays the insurer a percentage of the total costs for each service rendered by the provider. D. The provider bills the client directly for a predetermined percentage of the cost of services.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A fee-for-service health care insurance program is not a payment structure of a health maintenance organization. In a fee-for-service program, the client pays a premium to the insurer, and the insurer pays the provider for each service rendered, regardless of the outcome or quality of care.

Choice B:

A fixed sum payment for the client on a monthly or yearly basis is a payment structure of a health maintenance organization. In this structure, the provider receives a set amount of money per client per period of time, regardless of the number or type of services provided. This encourages the provider to deliver preventive and primary care, and to avoid unnecessary or costly procedures.

Choice C:

A percentage of the total costs for each service rendered by the provider is not a payment structure of a health maintenance organization. This is a type of cost-sharing arrangement, where the client pays a portion of the expenses and the insurer pays the rest. This may result in higher out-of-pocket costs for the client and higher utilization of services by the provider.

Choice D:

A predetermined percentage of the cost of services is not a payment structure of a health maintenance organization. This is a type of discounted fee-for-service arrangement, where the provider agrees to accept a lower fee than the usual charge for each service. This may reduce the costs for the insurer, but not necessarily for the client or the provider.

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Question 6:

A client who has diabetes mellitus asks a home health nurse to help her adapt some of her traditional cultural foods to fit her meal plan. Which of the following is the first action the nurse should take when assisting this client?

A. Provide the client with a printed recipe. B. Observe the client during preparation of traditional foods. C. Use cookbooks to include traditional foods in meal plans. D. Explain diabetes exchange list.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Providing the client with a printed recipe is not the first action that the nurse should take when assisting this client. The nurse should first assess the client's current dietary practices and preferences, and then provide culturally appropriate and individualized education and guidance.

Choice B:

Observing the client during preparation of traditional foods is the first action that the nurse should take when assisting this client. This will help the nurse to understand the client's cultural values and beliefs, as well as the ingredients and methods used in preparing the foods. The nurse can then offer suggestions on how to modify the recipes to fit the client's meal plan.

Choice C:

Using cookbooks to include traditional foods in meal plans is not the first action that the nurse should take when assisting this client. The nurse should first observe the client's food choices and cooking techniques, and then collaborate with the client to find cookbooks that are suitable for the client's culture and health condition.

Choice D:

Explaining diabetes exchange list is not the first action that the nurse should take when assisting this client. The nurse should first observe the client's eating habits and patterns, and then educate the client on how to use the exchange list to plan balanced meals that include traditional foods.

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Question 7:

An occupational health nurse is discussing health promotion with a client who has a history of obesity. Which of the following comments indicates the client is using rationalization as a coping mechanism?

A. I have lots of health problems from being obese. B. I am obese because it's in my genes. C. I have difficulty resisting the items in vending machines. D. I know you don't like me because I am obese.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

This comment does not indicate rationalization, but rather a recognition of the consequences of obesity. The client may be expressing a need for help or motivation to change their lifestyle.

Choice B:

This comment indicates rationalization, which is a defense mechanism that involves making excuses or justifying one's behavior or situation. The client may be avoiding personal responsibility or denying the possibility of change by blaming their obesity on their genes.

Choice C:

This comment does not indicate rationalization, but rather a challenge or barrier that the client faces in achieving their health goals. The client may be acknowledging their weakness or seeking support to overcome their temptation.

Choice D:

This comment does not indicate rationalization, but rather a projection or displacement of the client's negative feelings onto others. The client may be feeling insecure or rejected because of their obesity, and assuming that others share the same opinion.

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Question 8:

A nurse is conducting a community assessment. Which of the following information should the nurse include as part of the windshield survey?

A. Demographic data. B. Mortality rate. C. Informant interviews. D. Housing quality.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Demographic data is not part of the windshield survey, but rather a secondary source of information that the nurse can obtain from census reports, health statistics, or other documents. Demographic data includes information such as age, gender, race, ethnicity, income, education, and occupation of the community members.

Choice B:

Mortality rate is not part of the windshield survey, but rather a secondary source of information that the nurse can obtain from vital records, health reports, or other documents. Mortality rate is a measure of the number of deaths in a given population, usually expressed as deaths per 1000 or 100,000 people.

Choice C:

Informant interviews are not part of the windshield survey, but rather a primary source of information that the nurse can obtain by talking to key informants or community leaders who have knowledge and insight about the community. Informant interviews can help the nurse to identify the community's strengths, needs, problems, and resources.

Choice D:

Housing quality is part of the windshield survey, which is a direct observation of the community by driving or walking through it. Housing quality includes information such as the type, age, condition, size, and value of the houses, as well as the availability and accessibility of utilities, sanitation, and safety features. Housing quality can reflect the socioeconomic status, health status, and environmental risks of the community.

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Question 9:

A community health nurse is educating a parent about the importance of hepatitis B immunization. Which of the following explanations should the nurse give the parent about the disease?

A. One dose of the immunization gives children lifelong protection from hepatitis B. B. Hepatitis B spreads easily among children through casual contact. C. Many people who acquire acute hepatitis B develop chronic hepatitis. D. People who have had a hepatitis B infection still need the immunization.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

One dose of the immunization does not give children lifelong protection from hepatitis B. The immunization requires a series of three or four doses, depending on the vaccine type, to provide long-term immunity. The first dose is usually given at birth, followed by the second dose at 1 to 2 months of age, and the third dose at 6 to 18 months of age. Some children may need a fourth dose at 4 to 6 years of age.

Choice B:

Hepatitis B does not spread easily among children through casual contact. Hepatitis B is a blood-borne infection that is transmitted through exposure to infected blood or body fluids, such as through sexual contact, sharing needles, or from mother to child during birth. Casual contact, such as hugging, kissing, or sharing food, does not pose a risk of transmission.

Choice C:

Many people who acquire acute hepatitis B develop chronic hepatitis. Chronic hepatitis is a condition where the infection persists for more than six months and causes inflammation and scarring of the liver. Chronic hepatitis can lead to serious complications, such as cirrhosis, liver failure, or liver cancer. About 90% of infants, 25% to 50% of children aged 1 to 5 years, and 5% to 10% of adults who get infected with hepatitis B will develop chronic hepatitis.

Choice D:

People who have had a hepatitis B infection do not need the immunization. The immunization is only effective in preventing the infection, not treating it. People who have had a hepatitis B infection will develop natural immunity, which means they will not get infected again. However, they should still be monitored for any signs of liver damage or complications.

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Question 10:

A first response team is working at the location of a bombing incident. A nurse triaging a group of clients should give treatment priority to which of the following clients?

A. A client who has superficial partial-thickness burn injuries over 5% of his body. B. A client who has a femur fracture with a 2+ pedal pulse. C. A client who is ambulatory and exhibits manic behavior. D. A client who has a rigid abdomen with manifestations of shock.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

A client who has superficial partial-thickness burn injuries over 5% of his body is not the highest priority for treatment. This type of burn injury affects only the epidermis and the upper layer of the dermis, and causes pain, redness, and blisters. The client may need fluid replacement, pain management, and wound care, but is not in immediate danger of life-threatening complications.

Choice B:

A client who has a femur fracture with a 2+ pedal pulse is not the highest priority for treatment. This type of fracture involves the breakage of the thigh bone, which is the largest and strongest bone in the body. The client may experience severe pain, swelling, deformity, and bleeding. A 2+ pedal pulse indicates that the blood flow to the lower extremity is adequate, but not optimal. The client may need immobilization, traction, surgery, and infection prevention, but is not in immediate danger of life-threatening complications.

Choice C:

A client who is ambulatory and exhibits manic behavior is not the highest priority for treatment. This type of behavior involves a state of elevated mood, energy, and activity, which may be caused by stress, trauma, or a mental disorder. The client may experience euphoria, irritability, impulsivity, and poor judgment. The client may need psychological support, medication, and safety measures, but is not in immediate danger of life-threatening complications.

Choice D:

A client who has a rigid abdomen with manifestations of shock is the highest priority for treatment. This type of condition involves a severe injury to the abdominal organs, such as the liver, spleen, or intestines, which may cause internal bleeding, inflammation, and infection. The client may experience pain, tenderness, distension, and guarding of the abdomen, as well as signs of shock, such as hypotension, tachycardia, pallor, and confusion. The client may need fluid resuscitation, blood transfusion, surgery, and antibiotics, and is in immediate danger of life-threatening complications.

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Question 11:

A nurse is working with a community health care team to devise strategies for preventing violence in the community. Which of the following interventions is an example of tertiary prevention?

A. Presenting community education programs about stress management. B. Developing resources for victims of abuse. C. Urging community leaders to make nonviolence a priority. D. Assessing for risk factors of intimate partner abuse during health examinations.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Presenting community education programs about stress management is not an example of tertiary prevention, but rather an example of primary prevention. Primary prevention aims to prevent violence from occurring in the first place by addressing the underlying causes and risk factors. Stress management is one of the strategies that can help reduce the potential for violent behavior.

Choice B:

Developing resources for victims of abuse is an example of tertiary prevention. Tertiary prevention aims to reduce the consequences and complications of violence by providing treatment and rehabilitation for the survivors. Resources for victims of abuse may include counseling, shelter, legal aid, and support groups.

Choice C:

Urging community leaders to make nonviolence a priority is not an example of tertiary prevention, but rather an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and intervene in violence as early as possible by identifying and responding to the warning signs and symptoms. Community leaders can play a role in promoting a culture of nonviolence and enforcing policies and laws that protect the victims and punish the perpetrators.

Choice D:

Assessing for risk factors of intimate partner abuse during health examinations is not an example of tertiary prevention, but rather an example of secondary prevention. Secondary prevention aims to detect and intervene in violence as early as possible by identifying and responding to the warning signs and symptoms. Health examinations can provide an opportunity for screening and counseling the clients who may be at risk of or experiencing intimate partner abuse.

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Question 12:

A public health nurse is caring for an employee who has been exposed to anthrax. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Alert the family members of coworkers about possible exposure to anthrax. B. Place the employee under quarantine for 14 days. C. Refer coworkers who might have been exposed to a provider for prophylactic antibiotics. D. Instruct the employee to wear a mask at work.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Alerting the family members of coworkers about possible exposure to anthrax is not an action that the nurse should take. Anthrax is not contagious, and it cannot be spread from person to person. The family members of coworkers are not at risk of infection, and alerting them may cause unnecessary panic and stigma.

Choice B:

Placing the employee under quarantine for 14 days is not an action that the nurse should take. Anthrax is not contagious, and it cannot be spread from person to person. The employee does not need to be isolated from others, and quarantine may interfere with their access to medical care and social support.

Choice C:

Referring coworkers who might have been exposed to a provider for prophylactic antibiotics is an action that the nurse should take. Anthrax is a serious bacterial infection that can be fatal if left untreated. The coworkers who might have been exposed to the same source of anthrax as the employee should receive prophylactic antibiotics as soon as possible to prevent the infection from developing.

Choice D:

Instructing the employee to wear a mask at work is not an action that the nurse should take. Anthrax is not contagious, and it cannot be spread from person to person. The employee does not need to wear a mask at work, and doing so may cause unnecessary discomfort and discrimination.

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Question 13:

A community health nurse is providing teaching to a group of clients who have alcohol use disorder. Which of the following findings should the nurse include in the teaching as a manifestation of alcohol withdrawal?

A. Bradycardia. B. Hypothermia. C. Increased appetite. D. Insomnia.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Bradycardia is not a manifestation of alcohol withdrawal, but rather a sign of low heart rate. Alcohol withdrawal typically causes tachycardia, or high heart rate, as the body tries to compensate for the sudden absence of alcohol.

Choice B:

Hypothermia is not a manifestation of alcohol withdrawal, but rather a sign of low body temperature. Alcohol withdrawal typically causes hyperthermia, or high body temperature, as the body reacts to the withdrawal symptoms.

Choice C:

Increased appetite is not a manifestation of alcohol withdrawal, but rather a sign of hunger or craving. Alcohol withdrawal typically causes decreased appetite, or anorexia, as the body loses interest in food and suffers from nausea and vomiting.

Choice D:

Insomnia is a manifestation of alcohol withdrawal, and one of the most common and distressing symptoms. Alcohol withdrawal causes insomnia, or difficulty falling or staying asleep, as the body experiences anxiety, agitation, and nightmares.

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Question 14:

A nurse is caring for a client who is homeless. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Determine the client's understanding of her living situation. B. Assist the client to develop goals for obtaining shelter. C. Discuss the risks of being homeless with the client. D. Develop client teaching using a variety of strategies.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Determining the client's understanding of her living situation is the first action that the nurse should take. This is based on the principle of client-centered care, which states that the nurse should respect the client's values, preferences, and needs, and involve the client in the decision-making process. The nurse should assess the client's perception of her homelessness, the factors that contributed to it, and the resources that are available to her.

Choice B:

Assisting the client to develop goals for obtaining shelter is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is an important intervention, but it should be done after the nurse has assessed the client's understanding of her living situation and explored the client's readiness and motivation to change.

Choice C:

Discussing the risks of being homeless with the client is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is an important intervention, but it should be done after the nurse has assessed the client's understanding of her living situation and established a trusting relationship with the client. The nurse should avoid being judgmental or paternalistic, and instead use a harm reduction approach that focuses on minimizing the negative consequences of homelessness.

Choice D:

Developing client teaching using a variety of strategies is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is an important intervention, but it should be done after the nurse has assessed the client's understanding of her living situation and identified the client's learning needs and preferences. The nurse should use strategies that are appropriate for the client's literacy level, language, culture, and cognitive ability.

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Question 15:

A community health nurse observes the accumulation of garbage at a neighborhood playground. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first to promote a clean and safe environment?

A. Meet with community members to discuss methods of playground maintenance. B. Partner with city officials and community members to improve the playground condition. C. Work with local businesses to sponsor more trash receptacles in the playground. D. Engage neighborhood families to monitor the playground for further trash buildup.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Meeting with community members to discuss methods of playground maintenance is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is a secondary intervention that can help to prevent the recurrence of the problem, but it does not address the immediate issue of the garbage accumulation.

Choice B:

Partnering with city officials and community members to improve the playground condition is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is a tertiary intervention that can help to restore the playground to its optimal state, but it does not address the immediate issue of the garbage accumulation.

Choice C:

Working with local businesses to sponsor more trash receptacles in the playground is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is a secondary intervention that can help to prevent the recurrence of the problem, but it does not address the immediate issue of the garbage accumulation.

Choice D:

Engaging neighborhood families to monitor the playground for further trash buildup is the first action that the nurse should take. This is a primary intervention that can help to eliminate the source of the problem, and to empower the community to take responsibility for their environment. The nurse can use strategies such as education, motivation, and social support to encourage the families to keep the playground clean and safe.

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Question 16:

A nurse in a mobile health clinic is caring for a client who requires a tetanus immunization and is accompanied by his daughter. The client does not speak the same language as the nurse. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Have the client's daughter communicate information about the procedure. B. Arrange for a member of the client's community to interpret the teaching. C. Identify the client's spoken dialect prior to contacting an interpreter. D. Use professional terminology when providing education prior to the procedure.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Having the client's daughter communicate information about the procedure is not an action that the nurse should take. The daughter may not be a reliable or accurate interpreter, as she may have limited language skills, lack medical knowledge, or be influenced by her emotions or biases. The nurse should use a qualified interpreter who can ensure the confidentiality, accuracy, and completeness of the communication.

Choice B:

Arranging for a member of the client's community to interpret the teaching is not an action that the nurse should take. The member of the client's community may not be a qualified or impartial interpreter, as he or she may have a personal or professional relationship with the client, or may have a conflict of interest or a hidden agenda. The nurse should use a professional interpreter who can maintain the boundaries, objectivity, and neutrality of the communication.

Choice C:

Identifying the client's spoken dialect prior to contacting an interpreter is an action that the nurse should take. This will help the nurse to find an appropriate interpreter who can communicate effectively and respectfully with the client. The nurse should also consider the client's cultural background, preferences, and needs when selecting an interpreter.

Choice D:

Using professional terminology when providing education prior to the procedure is not an action that the nurse should take. The nurse should use simple and clear language that the client can understand, and avoid using jargon, slang, or idioms that may confuse or offend the client. The nurse should also check the client's comprehension and ask for feedback throughout the communication.

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Question 17:

A nurse at a local health department is caring for several clients. Which of the following infections should the nurse report to the state health department?

A. Chlamydia. B. Herpes simplex virus. C. Group B Streptococcus B hemolytic. D. Human papillomavirus.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Chlamydia is a reportable infection to the state health department. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection caused by the bacterium Chlamydia trachomatis. It can cause pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and neonatal complications. Reporting chlamydia cases can help to monitor the prevalence, incidence, and trends of the infection, and to implement prevention and control measures.

Choice B:

Herpes simplex virus is not a reportable infection to the state health department. Herpes simplex virus is a common viral infection that causes oral or genital lesions. It can be transmitted through direct contact with the lesions or the infected fluids. There is no cure for herpes simplex virus, but antiviral medications can reduce the frequency and severity of the outbreaks.

Choice C:

Group B Streptococcus B hemolytic is not a reportable infection to the state health department. Group B Streptococcus B hemolytic is a type of bacteria that can be found in the gastrointestinal or genital tract of some people. It can cause serious infections in newborns, pregnant women, and people with weakened immune systems. Screening and treatment of pregnant women can prevent the transmission of the bacteria to their babies.

Choice D:

Human papillomavirus is not a reportable infection to the state health department. Human papillomavirus is a group of viruses that can cause warts or cancers in different parts of the body. It can be transmitted through sexual contact or skin-to-skin contact. There is no treatment for human papillomavirus, but vaccines can prevent some types of the virus that cause cervical cancer and genital warts.

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Question 18:

A clinic nurse is assessing a client who has measles. Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?

A. Koplik spots inside the mouth. B. Persistent low-grade temperature. C. Muscle aches and tenderness. D. Rash confined to the trunk of the body.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Koplik spots are small, white, bluish-gray spots that appear on the inner cheeks, gums, or roof of the mouth before the rash develops. They are a characteristic sign of measles and can help to distinguish it from other viral infections.

Choice B:

Persistent low-grade temperature is not a finding that the nurse should expect in a client who has measles. Measles typically causes a high fever that can reach up to 40°C (104°F) and lasts for four to seven days. The fever may spike when the rash appears and subside when the rash fades.

Choice C:

Muscle aches and tenderness are not findings that the nurse should expect in a client who has measles. Measles mainly affects the respiratory system and the skin, and does not cause significant muscle involvement. The client may experience fatigue, weakness, or malaise, but not muscle pain or soreness.

Choice D:

Rash confined to the trunk of the body is not a finding that the nurse should expect in a client who has measles. Measles causes a red, blotchy rash that usually starts on the face and spreads to the rest of the body, including the arms, legs, and feet. The rash may last for up to a week and may cause itching or peeling of the skin.

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Question 19:

A community health nurse is planning a program for adolescents about preventing STIs. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Collect data to identify barriers to learning. B. Establish methods to evaluate program outcomes. C. Obtain visual aids that feature adolescents. D. Provide computer-based education.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Collecting data to identify barriers to learning is the first action that the nurse should take. This is based on the principle of assessment, which states that the nurse should gather information about the needs, interests, and characteristics of the target population before planning any intervention. The nurse should assess the barriers that may prevent the adolescents from participating in or benefiting from the program, such as lack of knowledge, motivation, access, or support.

Choice B:

Establishing methods to evaluate program outcomes is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is based on the principle of evaluation, which states that the nurse should measure the effectiveness and impact of the intervention after implementing it. The nurse should determine the criteria and indicators that will be used to evaluate the program outcomes, such as changes in knowledge, attitudes, behaviors, or health status.

Choice C:

Obtaining visual aids that feature adolescents is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is based on the principle of implementation, which states that the nurse should deliver the intervention using appropriate strategies and resources. The nurse should obtain visual aids that are relevant, accurate, and appealing to the adolescents, and that can enhance the learning process and the message delivery.

Choice D:

Providing computer-based education is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is based on the principle of implementation, which states that the nurse should deliver the intervention using appropriate strategies and resources. The nurse should provide computer-based education if it is feasible, accessible, and preferred by the adolescents, and if it can facilitate the learning objectives and outcomes.

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Question 20:

A nurse is counseling a client who has a new diagnosis of chlamydia. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching? (Select all that apply)

A. You should avoid sexual contact until therapy is complete. B. Notify anyone with whom you have had sexual contact over the past 2 months. C. You will need to take an antiviral medication for 30 days. D. Once you complete treatment, you will have an acquired immunity against chlamydia. E. You might experience painful urination until the infection has resolved.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

You should avoid sexual contact until therapy is complete. This is to prevent the transmission of the infection to others, and to avoid reinfection or complications. The usual treatment for chlamydia is a single dose of an antibiotic, such as azithromycin or doxycycline. You should abstain from sexual activity for at least 7 days after taking the medication.

Choice B:

Notify anyone with whom you have had sexual contact over the past 2 months. This is to inform them of their possible exposure to the infection, and to encourage them to get tested and treated if necessary. Chlamydia is a sexually transmitted infection that can cause pelvic inflammatory disease, infertility, ectopic pregnancy, and neonatal complications. It can also increase the risk of acquiring or transmitting other STIs, such as HIV.

Choice C:

You will need to take an antiviral medication for 30 days. This is not a correct information that the nurse should include in the teaching. Chlamydia is a bacterial infection, not a viral infection. Antiviral medications are not effective against chlamydia, and are not indicated for its treatment.

Choice D:

Once you complete treatment, you will have an acquired immunity against chlamydia. This is not a correct information that the nurse should include in the teaching. Chlamydia does not confer immunity, and you can get infected again if you are exposed to the bacteria. You should get tested for chlamydia at least once a year, or more often if you have multiple or new sexual partners.

Choice E:

You might experience painful urination until the infection has resolved. This is a correct information that the nurse should include in the teaching. Chlamydia can cause inflammation and irritation of the urethra, which can result in dysuria, or painful or difficult urination. Other symptoms of chlamydia may include abnormal vaginal or penile discharge, lower abdominal pain, bleeding between periods, or pain during sex. However, some people may not have any symptoms, and may not know they are infected. Therefore, it is important to get tested regularly and to use condoms to prevent the spread of the infection.

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Question 21:

A home health nurse is planning the initial home visit for a client who has dementia and lives with his adult son's family. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first during the visit?

A. Encourage the family to join a support group. B. Provide the family with information about respite care. C. Educate the family regarding the progression of dementia. D. Engage the family in informal conversation.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Encouraging the family to join a support group is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is an important intervention that can help the family cope with the challenges and stress of caring for a client who has dementia, but it should be done after the nurse has established rapport and trust with the family.

Choice B:

Providing the family with information about respite care is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is an important intervention that can help the family access temporary relief from their caregiving responsibilities, but it should be done after the nurse has assessed the family's needs and preferences.

Choice C:

Educating the family regarding the progression of dementia is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is an important intervention that can help the family understand the nature and course of the disease, and prepare them for the future changes and challenges, but it should be done after the nurse has evaluated the family's level of knowledge and readiness to learn.

Choice D:

Engaging the family in informal conversation is the first action that the nurse should take. This is based on the principle of communication, which states that the nurse should initiate and maintain a therapeutic relationship with the client and the family. The nurse should use informal conversation to introduce herself, express interest and empathy, and create a comfortable and respectful atmosphere. The nurse should also use open-ended questions, active listening, and nonverbal cues to elicit the family's concerns, expectations, and goals.

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Question 22:

A parish nurse is counseling a family following a client's recent diagnosis of heart disease. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

A. Discuss the benefits of eating a well-balanced diet with the client's family. B. Assist the client and the client's partner with finding an affordable exercise program. C. Offer to accompany the client and the client's partner during health care provider visits. D. Ask family members about the impact of the disease on relationships within the family.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Discussing the benefits of eating a well-balanced diet with the client's family is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is an important intervention that can help the client and the family to improve their nutrition and reduce the risk of further complications, but it should be done after the nurse has assessed the family's coping and learning needs.

Choice B:

Assisting the client and the client's partner with finding an affordable exercise program is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is an important intervention that can help the client and the partner to increase their physical activity and enhance their cardiovascular health, but it should be done after the nurse has evaluated the client's physical and functional status.

Choice C:

Offering to accompany the client and the client's partner during health care provider visits is not the first action that the nurse should take. This is an important intervention that can help the client and the partner to receive support and guidance during the treatment process, but it should be done after the nurse has established rapport and trust with the family.

Choice D:

Asking family members about the impact of the disease on relationships within the family is the first action that the nurse should take. This is based on the principle of family-centered care, which states that the nurse should recognize and respect the family as the primary source of support and care for the client. The nurse should ask open-ended questions, listen actively, and express empathy to the family members, and explore how the disease has affected their roles, responsibilities, emotions, and communication.

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Question 23:

A nurse is caring for a client who is having difficulty performing activities of daily living. The nurse is functioning in which of the following roles when arranging for an occupational therapist to visit the client?

A. Administrator. B. Nurse consultant. C. Case manager. D. Clinician.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Administrator is not the role that the nurse is functioning in when arranging for an occupational therapist to visit the client. An administrator is a nurse who is responsible for planning, organizing, directing, and controlling the delivery of health care services within an organization or a unit.

Choice B:

Nurse consultant is not the role that the nurse is functioning in when arranging for an occupational therapist to visit the client. A nurse consultant is a nurse who provides expert advice and guidance to clients, organizations, or other health care professionals on specific issues or problems.

Choice C:

Case manager is the role that the nurse is functioning in when arranging for an occupational therapist to visit the client. A case manager is a nurse who coordinates the care of a client across the continuum of health care settings and services. A case manager assesses the client's needs, develops a plan of care, facilitates the delivery of appropriate interventions, and evaluates the outcomes.

Choice D:

Clinician is not the role that the nurse is functioning in when arranging for an occupational therapist to visit the client. A clinician is a nurse who provides direct care to clients in various settings, such as hospitals, clinics, or homes. A clinician performs assessments, diagnoses, treatments, and evaluations of the client's health status.

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Question 24:

A nurse is working in a shelter following a disaster. Which of the following is the priority action for the nurse to take?

A. Create diversionary activities for children. B. Address the physical needs of clients. C. Help clients gather needed supplies. D. Explore feelings the clients are experiencing.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Creating diversionary activities for children is not the priority action for the nurse to take. This is a supportive intervention that can help the children cope with the stress and trauma of the disaster, but it should be done after the nurse has ensured the safety and well-being of the clients.

Choice B:

Addressing the physical needs of clients is the priority action for the nurse to take. This is based on the principle of Maslow's hierarchy of needs, which states that the nurse should prioritize the most basic and essential needs of the clients, such as food, water, shelter, clothing, and medical care. The nurse should assess the clients for any injuries, illnesses, or chronic conditions, and provide appropriate interventions or referrals.

Choice C:

Helping clients gather needed supplies is not the priority action for the nurse to take. This is a helpful intervention that can assist the clients to obtain the resources and materials they need to survive and recover from the disaster, but it should be done after the nurse has addressed the physical needs of the clients.

Choice D:

Exploring feelings the clients are experiencing is not the priority action for the nurse to take. This is a therapeutic intervention that can facilitate the emotional and psychological healing of the clients, but it should be done after the nurse has addressed the physical needs of the clients. The nurse should also respect the clients' readiness and willingness to share their feelings, and avoid forcing or rushing the process.

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Question 25:

A community health nurse is planning a smoking cessation class. Which of the following factors will have the greatest effect on the success of the class?

A. Presenter's teaching strategies. B. Presenter's credibility. C. Client's motivation. D. Client's education level.

Answer and Explanation

Choice A:

Presenter's teaching strategies are not the factor that will have the greatest effect on the success of the class. Although the presenter should use effective and appropriate teaching methods that suit the learning objectives and outcomes, the teaching strategies alone cannot guarantee the success of the class if the client is not motivated to quit smoking.

Choice B:

Presenter's credibility is not the factor that will have the greatest effect on the success of the class. Although the presenter should have the knowledge, skills, and experience to deliver the smoking cessation education, the presenter's credibility alone cannot ensure the success of the class if the client is not motivated to quit smoking.

Choice C:

Client's motivation is the factor that will have the greatest effect on the success of the class. Motivation is the driving force that influences the client's behavior and actions. The client's motivation to quit smoking can be influenced by various factors, such as personal, social, environmental, or health-related reasons. The presenter should assess the client's motivation level, and use strategies to enhance and sustain it throughout the class.

Choice D:

Client's education level is not the factor that will have the greatest effect on the success of the class. Although the presenter should consider the client's education level when designing and delivering the smoking cessation education, the client's education level alone cannot determine the success of the class if the client is not motivated to quit smoking.

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RN ATI Community Health Proctored Exam 2023 with NGN 11

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