Pharmacology of Specific Body Systems Exams

Pharmacology of Specific Body Systems

Experience unlimited access to all questions, exams, video tutorials and study guides. Subscribe now to access all questions.

Study Questions

Introduction

Question 1 :

A nurse is preparing to administer a beta-blocker to a client with hypertension. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize?

A. Checking the client's blood pressure before administration. B. Assessing the client's heart rate and rhythm. C. Evaluating the client's renal function. D. Instructing the client to monitor their blood glucose levels.

Explanation

B) Correct. Beta-blockers primarily affect the heart by decreasing heart rate and contractility. Before administering a beta-blocker, it is essential for the nurse to assess the client's heart rate and rhythm to ensure it is within an appropriate range. This is important because beta-blockers can further slow the heart rate and may be contraindicated in certain conditions, such as bradycardia or heart block.

A) Incorrect. Although checking the client's blood pressure is important, it is not the priority action when administering a beta-blocker.

C) Incorrect. Evaluating renal function is not directly related to the administration of a beta-blocker. However, renal function should be considered in the overall assessment of the client's health status.

D) Incorrect. Monitoring blood glucose levels is not directly related to the administration of a beta-blocker. This action is more relevant for clients with diabetes who are taking medications that can affect blood glucose levels.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 2 :

A client with heart failure is prescribed digoxin. Which of the following assessment findings would require immediate nursing intervention?

A. Serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L. B. Heart rate of 60 beats per minute. C. Systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg. D. Digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL.

Explanation

A) Correct. Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside, and hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity. A serum potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L indicates hypokalemia and requires immediate nursing intervention. Hypokalemia can potentiate the effects of digoxin on cardiac conduction, leading to dysrhythmias.

B) Incorrect. A heart rate of 60 beats per minute is within the expected range for a client taking digoxin, as it is commonly used to control heart rate in certain cardiac conditions.

C) Incorrect. A systolic blood pressure of 100 mmHg may be within an acceptable range for a client with heart failure, depending on their baseline blood pressure and symptoms. It does not require immediate nursing intervention.

D) Incorrect. A digoxin level of 1.2 ng/mL is within the therapeutic range for digoxin. It does not require immediate nursing intervention.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 3 :

A client who is taking warfarin asks the nurse about consuming foods high in vitamin K. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the response?

A. "You should avoid foods high in vitamin K to prevent interference with warfarin." B. "You can continue to eat foods high in vitamin K, but try to keep your intake consistent." C. "Increasing your intake of foods high in vitamin K can enhance the effects of warfarin." D. "It is safe to consume unlimited amounts of foods high in vitamin K while taking warfarin."

Explanation

B) Correct. Clients taking warfarin should continue to eat foods high in vitamin K, but they should try to keep their intake consistent. Vitamin K plays a role in the synthesis of clotting factors, and warfarin works by inhibiting the action of vitamin K, thereby reducing the blood's ability to clot. Consistent vitamin K intake helps maintain a stable response to warfarin.

A) Incorrect. Avoiding foods high in vitamin K is not necessary, but consistency in vitamin K intake is important.

C) Incorrect. Increasing intake of foods high in vitamin K can counteract the effects of warfarin and increase the risk of blood clots.

D) Incorrect. Consuming unlimited amounts of foods high in vitamin K can interfere with the anticoagulant effects of warfarin and lead to inconsistent therapeutic response.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 4 :

A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous heparin. Which of the following laboratory values should the nurse monitor to assess the client's response to therapy?

A. Prothrombin time (PT) B. International normalized ratio (INR) C. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) D. Platelet count

Explanation

C) Correct. Heparin primarily affects the intrinsic pathway of the coagulation cascade, and the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) is the laboratory test used to monitor the client's response to heparin therapy. The aPTT provides information about the time it takes for the client's blood to clot and helps determine the appropriate heparin dosage.

A) Incorrect. Prothrombin time (PT) is used to monitor clients receiving warfarin therapy, not heparin.

B) Incorrect. International normalized ratio (INR) is also used to monitor clients receiving warfarin therapy, not heparin.

D) Incorrect. Platelet count is important to monitor for heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), a potential adverse effect of heparin therapy, but it does not directly assess the client's response to heparin therapy.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 5 :

A nurse is caring for a client receiving angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor therapy. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

A. Blood glucose levels B. Serum potassium levels C. Serum creatinine levels D. White blood cell count

Explanation

B) Correct. ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia as a side effect by inhibiting aldosterone secretion. Therefore, the nurse should prioritize assessing serum potassium levels regularly to monitor for hyperkalemia. This is particularly important in clients with pre-existing renal impairment or those taking other medications that can increase potassium levels.

A) Incorrect. ACE inhibitors do not directly affect blood glucose levels, although they may indirectly influence glycemic control in clients with diabetes.

C) Incorrect. Serum creatinine levels should be monitored regularly in clients receiving ACE inhibitors, as these medications can affect renal function. However, assessing serum potassium levels is a higher priority in this scenario.

D) Incorrect. White blood cell count is not directly related to ACE inhibitor therapy and does not require prioritization in this case.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 6 :

A client is prescribed statin therapy to manage high cholesterol levels. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. "I should take my statin medication with my evening meal." B. "I will avoid consuming grapefruit while taking this medication." C. "I will report any muscle pain or weakness to my healthcare provider." D. "I can stop taking the statin once my cholesterol levels are normal."

Explanation

D) Correct. Statin therapy is usually a lifelong treatment for managing high cholesterol levels. Stopping the medication once cholesterol levels are normal can lead to a rebound increase in cholesterol levels and increase the risk of cardiovascular events. The client should be educated about the importance of continued adherence to statin therapy as prescribed by their healthcare provider.

A) Incorrect. Taking statin medication with the evening meal can optimize its effectiveness, as cholesterol synthesis typically occurs during nighttime.

B) Incorrect. Grapefruit can interfere with the metabolism of certain statins, leading to increased levels of the medication in the body. Therefore, it is important to avoid consuming grapefruit while taking statins.

C) Incorrect. Reporting muscle pain or weakness is crucial because statins can cause muscle-related side effects, including myopathy and rhabdomyolysis. Prompt reporting allows for early intervention or adjustment of the medication if necessary.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 7 :

A nurse is caring for a client receiving intravenous nitroglycerin. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

A. Blood pressure B. Respiratory rate C. Oxygen saturation D. Blood glucose levels

Explanation

A) Correct. Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator primarily used to reduce angina and improve cardiac blood flow. Monitoring the client's blood pressure is crucial to assess the medication's effectiveness and prevent hypotension, a potential adverse effect. Nitroglycerin can cause significant vasodilation, leading to a drop in blood pressure, and the nurse should closely monitor the client's blood pressure during therapy.

B) Incorrect. Although monitoring respiratory rate is important, it is not the priority assessment when caring for a client receiving intravenous nitroglycerin.

C) Incorrect. Oxygen saturation should be monitored for clients receiving nitroglycerin, but it is not the priority assessment in this scenario.

D) Incorrect. Blood glucose levels are not directly affected by nitroglycerin and do not require prioritization in this case.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Respiratory medications

Question 8 :

A nurse is administering a bronchodilator medication to a client with asthma. Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize?

A. Assessing the client's respiratory status before administration. B. Checking the client's blood glucose levels. C. Monitoring the client's urine output. D. Instructing the client to avoid caffeine-containing foods and beverages.

Explanation

A) Correct. Assessing the client's respiratory status before administering a bronchodilator is essential to evaluate the client's baseline lung function and determine the effectiveness of the medication. This assessment helps the nurse identify any signs of respiratory distress or improvement and guides further interventions.

B) Incorrect. Checking blood glucose levels is not directly related to the administration of a bronchodilator medication.

C) Incorrect. Monitoring urine output is not specifically required for the administration of a bronchodilator medication.

D) Incorrect. Instructing the client to avoid caffeine-containing foods and beverages is not directly related to the administration of a bronchodilator medication. It may be more relevant for clients taking certain respiratory medications, such as methylxanthines like theophylline.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 9 :

A client with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) is prescribed an inhaled corticosteroid. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include when teaching the client about the medication?

A. "Rinse your mouth with water after each inhalation." B. "Use the inhaler as needed during an acute exacerbation." C. "Do not use a spacer device with the inhaler." D. "Expect immediate relief of symptoms after using the inhaler."

Explanation

A) Correct. Instructing the client to rinse their mouth with water after each inhalation is important when using an inhaled corticosteroid. This action helps prevent the development of oral candidiasis (thrush), a potential side effect of inhaled corticosteroids.

B) Incorrect. Inhaled corticosteroids are maintenance medications for COPD and are not intended for use on an as-needed basis during acute exacerbations. Clients should have a separate rescue inhaler for acute symptom relief.

C) Incorrect. The use of a spacer device can improve the delivery of inhaled corticosteroids to the lungs, especially for clients who have difficulty coordinating inhaler use. Therefore, it is recommended to use a spacer device when using an inhaler.

D) Incorrect. Inhaled corticosteroids provide long-term control of symptoms in COPD but do not provide immediate relief. It may take several days to weeks of consistent use for the medication to reach its full therapeutic effect.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 10 :

A nurse is caring for a client receiving theophylline therapy. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

A. Blood pressure B. Serum theophylline levels C. Liver function tests D. Pulmonary function tests

Explanation

B) Correct. Monitoring serum theophylline levels is crucial when caring for a client receiving theophylline therapy. Theophylline has a narrow therapeutic range, and monitoring blood levels helps ensure therapeutic effectiveness while minimizing the risk of toxicity. The nurse should assess the client's theophylline levels regularly and adjust the dosage as necessary.

A) Incorrect. While blood pressure monitoring is important, it is not the priority assessment specifically related to theophylline therapy.

C) Incorrect. Theophylline can affect liver function, but liver function tests are not the priority assessment in this case.

D) Incorrect. Pulmonary function tests are not directly related to theophylline therapy and do not require prioritization in this scenario.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 11 :

A client is prescribed a metered-dose inhaler (MDI) and a dry powder inhaler (DPI). The client asks the nurse about the difference between the two types of inhalers. Which of the following responses by the nurse is correct?

A. "MDIs require you to coordinate your breathing with inhalation, while DPIs do not." B. "MDIs contain a propellant that helps deliver the medication into your lungs." C. "DPIs deliver the medication in a mist form, which is easier to inhale." D. "DPIs require you to use a spacer device for proper inhalation."

Explanation

A) Correct. Metered-dose inhalers (MDIs) require the client to coordinate their breathing with inhalation. They release a measured dose of medication in aerosol form, and the client needs to inhale deeply at the same time to ensure the medication reaches the lungs. Dry powder inhalers (DPIs), on the other hand, do not require coordination of breathing and inhalation. The client simply needs to inhale forcefully to activate the powder dispersion.

B) Incorrect. MDIs contain a propellant that helps atomize the medication and facilitate its delivery into the lungs, but this is not the main difference between MDIs and DPIs.

C) Incorrect. DPIs deliver the medication in powder form, not mist form.

D) Incorrect. DPIs do not require the use of a spacer device, unlike MDIs, which can benefit from a spacer device to improve medication delivery.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 12 :

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving nebulized albuterol. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize during and after the nebulization treatment?

A. Heart rate B. Capillary refill time C. Bowel sounds D. Urine output

Explanation

A) Correct. Monitoring the client's heart rate during and after nebulized albuterol treatment is essential. Albuterol is a beta-2 adrenergic agonist that can stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, leading to an increased heart rate (tachycardia). Monitoring the client's heart rate allows the nurse to assess for any potential adverse effects and determine the effectiveness of the medication.

B) Incorrect. Capillary refill time is not directly related to nebulized albuterol treatment and does not require prioritization in this scenario.

C) Incorrect. Bowel sounds are not directly affected by nebulized albuterol and do not require prioritization in this case.

D) Incorrect. Urine output is not directly affected by nebulized albuterol and does not require prioritization in this scenario.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 13 :

A client with asthma is prescribed a leukotriene receptor antagonist. Which of the following statements by the client indicates a need for further teaching?

A. "I will take this medication on an empty stomach." B. "I should notify my healthcare provider if I develop any mood changes." C. "I can use this medication for immediate relief during an asthma attack." D. "I will continue using my other asthma medications as prescribed."

Explanation

C) Correct. Leukotriene receptor antagonists are not intended for immediate relief during an asthma attack. They are long-term control medications used to manage and prevent asthma symptoms. Clients should have a separate rescue inhaler for acute symptom relief.

A) Incorrect. Taking the medication on an empty stomach may enhance its absorption, although it can be taken with or without food.

B) Incorrect. Leukotriene receptor antagonists have been associated with mood changes, including depression and suicidal ideation. Therefore, it is important to notify the healthcare provider if any mood changes occur.

D) Incorrect. The client should continue using their other asthma medications as prescribed, as leukotriene receptor antagonists are often used as an adjunct therapy for asthma management.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 14 :

A nurse is caring for a client receiving oral corticosteroid therapy. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

A. Blood glucose levels B. Oxygen saturation C. Urinary output D. Liver function tests

Explanation

A) Correct. Monitoring blood glucose levels is crucial when caring for a client receiving oral corticosteroid therapy. Corticosteroids can increase blood glucose levels and may cause or worsen diabetes mellitus or steroid-induced hyperglycemia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood glucose levels regularly and collaborate with the healthcare team to manage any glucose abnormalities.

B) Incorrect. Oxygen saturation monitoring is important but is not the priority assessment specifically related to oral corticosteroid therapy.

C) Incorrect. Urinary output monitoring is not specifically required for oral corticosteroid therapy and does not require prioritization in this case.

D) Incorrect. Liver function tests are not directly related to oral corticosteroid therapy and do not require prioritization in this scenario.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Gastrointestinal medications

Question 15 :

A nurse is administering a proton pump inhibitor (PPI) to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client?

A. "Take the medication with a full glass of water." B. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." C. "Crush the medication before swallowing." D. "Take the medication right before bedtime."

Explanation

B) Correct. Proton pump inhibitors (PPIs) are most effective when taken on an empty stomach, about 30 minutes before a meal. This ensures optimal absorption and inhibits gastric acid secretion during mealtime.

A) Incorrect. PPIs do not need to be taken with a full glass of water. However, taking them with a small amount of water is recommended to aid in swallowing.

C) Incorrect. PPIs should not be crushed. They are usually in delayed-release or enteric-coated form to protect the medication from stomach acid and facilitate absorption in the small intestine.

D) Incorrect. Taking PPIs right before bedtime is not necessary or recommended unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 16 :

A nurse is caring for a client receiving a bowel cleansing agent in preparation for a colonoscopy. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

A. Electrolyte levels B. Respiratory rate C. Urine output D. Blood glucose levels

Explanation

A) Correct. When a client is receiving a bowel cleansing agent, such as a laxative or oral sodium phosphate solution, monitoring electrolyte levels is crucial. These medications can cause electrolyte imbalances, especially hypokalemia, hyponatremia, and dehydration. The nurse should closely monitor the client's electrolyte levels and intervene appropriately to prevent complications.

B) Incorrect. Respiratory rate monitoring is important but is not the priority assessment specifically related to bowel cleansing agents.

C) Incorrect. Urine output monitoring is important but is not the priority assessment specifically related to bowel cleansing agents.

D) Incorrect. Blood glucose level monitoring is not directly affected by bowel cleansing agents and does not require prioritization in this scenario.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 17 :

A nurse is preparing to administer a histamine-2 receptor antagonist (H2 blocker) to a client. Which of the following actions should the nurse take?

A. Administer the medication with a full meal. B. Shake the medication well before administration. C. Administer the medication intravenously. D. Monitor the client for signs of anaphylaxis.

Explanation

D) Correct. H2 blockers, such as ranitidine or famotidine, are usually administered orally and do not require shaking. However, the nurse should monitor the client for signs of anaphylaxis, such as rash, itching, difficulty breathing, or swelling, as rare but serious allergic reactions can occur. Prompt recognition and intervention are essential in such cases.

A) Incorrect. H2 blockers can be taken with or without food, depending on the client's preference or specific instructions from the healthcare provider.

B) Incorrect. H2 blockers do not require shaking before administration.

C) Incorrect. H2 blockers are typically administered orally and are not given intravenously unless there are specific indications and healthcare provider orders.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 18 :

A client is prescribed a bulk-forming laxative. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include when teaching the client about the medication?

A. "Take the medication with a full glass of water." B. "Expect immediate relief after taking the medication." C. "Crush the medication before swallowing." D. "Take the medication before bedtime."

Explanation

A) Correct. Bulk-forming laxatives, such as psyllium, should be taken with a full glass of water. This helps prevent the medication from swelling and causing an obstruction in the esophagus or gastrointestinal tract. It also aids in the formation of a soft, bulky stool.

B) Incorrect. Bulk-forming laxatives do not provide immediate relief. They work by increasing the bulk and water content of the stool, which takes time to produce a laxative effect.

C) Incorrect. Bulk-forming laxatives should not be crushed. They are typically available as granules or powder that can be mixed with liquid.

D) Incorrect. Bulk-forming laxatives can be taken at any time of the day, depending on the client's preference or specific instructions from the healthcare provider.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 19 :

A nurse is caring for a client receiving sucralfate (Carafate) for the treatment of a duodenal ulcer. Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client?

A. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." B. "Chew the medication thoroughly before swallowing." C. "Avoid taking antacids within 30 minutes of this medication." D. "Take the medication at bedtime."

Explanation

C) Correct. Sucralfate (Carafate) forms a protective barrier over the ulcer, allowing it to heal. However, it can interact with antacids, reducing its effectiveness. Therefore, the client should avoid taking antacids within 30 minutes before or after sucralfate administration.

A) Incorrect. Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, but this does not necessarily mean it needs to be taken in the morning before breakfast.

B) Incorrect. Sucralfate should be swallowed whole without chewing. Chewing the medication is not necessary and may interfere with its effectiveness.

D) Incorrect. Sucralfate can be taken multiple times a day, depending on the healthcare provider's instructions. It does not necessarily need to be taken at bedtime.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 20 :

A nurse is teaching a client about the adverse effects of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs). Which of the following adverse effects should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. Constipation B. Hypotension C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Bronchospasm

Explanation

C) Correct. Gastrointestinal bleeding is a potential adverse effect of NSAID use. NSAIDs can cause irritation and damage to the lining of the stomach and intestines, leading to bleeding and ulcers.

A) Incorrect. Constipation is not a common adverse effect of NSAIDs. Instead, NSAIDs can cause gastrointestinal disturbances such as diarrhea or abdominal pain.

B) Incorrect. Hypotension is not a typical adverse effect of NSAIDs. However, some individuals may experience fluid retention and edema, which can lead to elevated blood pressure.

D) Incorrect. Bronchospasm is not directly associated with NSAIDs. However, individuals with a history of aspirin sensitivity or asthma may experience bronchospasm as a hypersensitivity reaction to NSAIDs.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 21 :

A client is prescribed an antidiarrheal medication. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

A. Constipation B. Urinary retention C. Hypertension D. Diuresis

Explanation

A) Correct. Antidiarrheal medications can cause constipation as an adverse effect.These medications slow down the movement of the gastrointestinal tract, which can lead to a delay in bowel movements and the potential for constipation.
B) Incorrect. Urinary retention is not a common adverse effect of antidiarrheal medications. Instead, urinary retention is associated with medications such as anticholinergics or opioids.
C ) Incorrect. Hypertension is not a typical adverse effect of antidiarrheal medications.
D) Incorrect. Diuresis, which refers to increased urine production, is not associated with antidiarrheal medications. Diuresis is more commonly associated with diuretic medications.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 22 :

A nurse is administering an antacid medication to a client with gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD). Which of the following instructions should the nurse provide to the client?

A. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." B. "Crush the medication before swallowing." C. "Take the medication immediately before bedtime." D. "Avoid taking other medications within 1 hour of this medication."

Explanation

D) Correct. Antacid medications can interfere with the absorption of other medications. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid taking other medications within 1 hour of taking an antacid.

A) Incorrect. Antacid medications can be taken with or without food, depending on the client's preference or specific instructions from the healthcare provider.

B) Incorrect. Antacid medications do not need to be crushed before swallowing. They are typically available as tablets, chewable tablets, or liquids.

C) Incorrect. Taking antacid medication immediately before bedtime is not necessary or recommended unless specifically prescribed by the healthcare provider. The timing of antacid administration can vary based on the client's symptoms and medication regimen.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Nervous system medications

Question 23 :

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed a benzodiazepine. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

A. Blood pressure B. Blood glucose level C. Respiratory rate D. Liver function tests

Explanation

C) Correct. Benzodiazepines are central nervous system depressants that can cause respiratory depression. Therefore, monitoring the client's respiratory rate is essential to ensure adequate oxygenation and identify any signs of respiratory compromise.

A) Incorrect. Blood pressure monitoring is important but is not the priority assessment specifically related to benzodiazepines.

B) Incorrect. Blood glucose levels are not directly affected by benzodiazepine use and do not require prioritization in this scenario.

D) Incorrect. While liver function tests may be relevant for some medications, it is not the priority assessment specifically related to benzodiazepines.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 24 :

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed an acetylcholinesterase inhibitor. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the client's education?

A. "This medication helps improve memory and cognitive function in Alzheimer's disease." B. "Take this medication on an empty stomach to enhance its absorption." C. "Expect immediate relief of symptoms after taking this medication." D. "This medication increases the production of dopamine in the brain."

Explanation

A) Correct. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors, such as donepezil or rivastigmine, are commonly prescribed to improve memory and cognitive function in clients with Alzheimer's disease. Educating the client about the therapeutic effects of the medication is important for promoting understanding and adherence.

B) Incorrect. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors can be taken with or without food, and taking them with food may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects.

C) Incorrect. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors do not provide immediate relief of symptoms. They need to be taken consistently over time to achieve the desired therapeutic effects.

D) Incorrect. Acetylcholinesterase inhibitors do not increase dopamine production. They work by inhibiting the breakdown of acetylcholine, a neurotransmitter involved in memory and cognitive function.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 25 :

A client is prescribed a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) for the treatment of depression. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential adverse effects?

A. Hypertension B. Weight gain C. Sedation D. Sexual dysfunction

Explanation

D) Correct. Selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) can cause sexual dysfunction as an adverse effect, including decreased libido, erectile dysfunction, or delayed ejaculation. It is important for the nurse to monitor the client for these potential adverse effects and provide appropriate support or interventions.

A) Incorrect. Hypertension is not a typical adverse effect of SSRIs. In fact, they are often used to manage anxiety disorders, which may contribute to reducing blood pressure.

B) Incorrect. Weight gain is a potential adverse effect of some antidepressant medications, but it is not specific to SSRIs.

C) Incorrect. Sedation is not a common adverse effect of SSRIs. In fact, SSRIs are generally considered to have a stimulating effect and may cause initial insomnia or agitation in some individuals.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 26 :

A client is prescribed a muscle relaxant medication. The nurse should assess the client for which of the following potential adverse effects?

A. Constipation B. Hypertension C. Sedation D. Bronchospasm

Explanation

C) Correct. Muscle relaxant medications can cause sedation as an adverse effect. These medications act on the central nervous system, leading to a relaxation of muscle tone, but they can also cause drowsiness and sedation.

A) Incorrect. Constipation is not a typical adverse effect of muscle relaxants. However, some muscle relaxants may have anticholinergic effects that can contribute to constipation.

B) Incorrect. Hypertension is not a common adverse effect of muscle relaxants. In fact, muscle relaxants can potentially lower blood pressure.

D) Incorrect. Bronchospasm is not directly associated with muscle relaxant use.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 27 :

A nurse is caring for a client receiving an antiepileptic medication. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include in the client's teaching?

A. "Take the medication on an empty stomach." B. "Avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking this medication." C. "Discontinue the medication abruptly if you experience side effects." D. "It is safe to consume alcohol while taking this medication."

Explanation

B) Correct. Antiepileptic medications can cause drowsiness, dizziness, and impaired coordination. Therefore, the client should be advised to avoid driving or operating heavy machinery while taking the medication to prevent accidents or injuries.

A) Incorrect. The need to take the medication on an empty stomach depends on the specific medication and should be addressed based on the healthcare provider's instructions.

C) Incorrect. Antiepileptic medications should never be discontinued abruptly, as it can lead to seizure activity. The client should follow the healthcare provider's instructions for tapering off the medication, if necessary.

D) Incorrect. Alcohol can interact with antiepileptic medications and increase the risk of side effects or adverse reactions. Clients should be advised to avoid or limit alcohol consumption while taking these medications.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 28 :

A client is prescribed a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI) for the treatment of depression. The nurse should instruct the client to avoid which of the following foods?

A. Citrus fruits B. Aged cheese C. Leafy green vegetables D. Whole grains

Explanation

B) Correct. Clients taking MAOIs should avoid aged cheese and other foods containing high levels of tyramine. Tyramine-rich foods can lead to a hypertensive crisis when combined with MAOIs, potentially causing severe increases in blood pressure.

A) Incorrect. Citrus fruits do not need to be avoided specifically when taking MAOIs.

C) Incorrect. Leafy green vegetables do not need to be avoided specifically when taking MAOIs.

D) Incorrect. Whole grains do not need to be avoided specifically when taking MAOIs.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 29 :

A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed a central nervous system stimulant. Which of the following assessments should the nurse prioritize?

A. Heart rate B. Liver function tests C. Urine output D. Blood glucose level

Explanation

A) Correct. Central nervous system stimulants can increase heart rate and blood pressure. Monitoring the client's heart rate is essential to identify any cardiovascular side effects, such as tachycardia or arrhythmias.

B) Incorrect. While liver function tests may be relevant for some medications, it is not the priority assessment specifically related to central nervous system stimulants.

C) Incorrect. Urine output monitoring is important but is not the priority assessment specifically related to central nervous system stimulants.

D) Incorrect. Blood glucose levels are not directly affected by central nervous system stimulants and do not require prioritization in this scenario.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 30 :

A client is prescribed a tricyclic antidepressant. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential adverse effects?

A. Hypotension B. Weight loss C. Insomnia D. Urinary retention

Explanation

D) Correct. Tricyclic antidepressants can cause anticholinergic effects, including urinary retention. The nurse should monitor the client for any signs or symptoms of urinary retention and assess the client's ability to void.

A) Incorrect. Hypotension is a potential adverse effect of some antidepressant medications, but it is not specific to tricyclic antidepressants. In fact, tricyclic antidepressants can cause orthostatic hypotension, which is a drop in blood pressure upon standing.

B) Incorrect. Weight gain is a more common adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressants. Weight loss is not typically associated with these medications.

C) Incorrect. Insomnia is a potential adverse effect of tricyclic antidepressants, but it is not the most significant adverse effect associated with this class of medication. Sedation and drowsiness are more common adverse effects.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Endocrine medications

Question 31 :

A nurse is preparing to teach a client about insulin administration. Which of the following statements should the nurse include in the teaching?

A. "Rotate injection sites to prevent lipohypertrophy." B. "Inject insulin directly into muscle for faster absorption." C. "Store insulin at room temperature for optimal effectiveness." D. "Mix long-acting insulin with short-acting insulin in the same syringe."

Explanation

A) Correct. The nurse should instruct the client to rotate injection sites to prevent lipohypertrophy, a condition characterized by fatty deposits at the injection sites that can affect insulin absorption.

B) Incorrect. Insulin should be injected into the subcutaneous tissue, not into the muscle. Injecting insulin into muscle can lead to faster absorption and potentially cause hypoglycemia.

C) Incorrect. Insulin should be stored in the refrigerator to maintain its potency. It should not be frozen or exposed to extreme heat.

D) Incorrect. Long-acting insulin and short-acting insulin should not be mixed in the same syringe unless specifically instructed by a healthcare provider. Mixing different types of insulin can alter their pharmacokinetics and effectiveness.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 32 :

A client is prescribed levothyroxine sodium for the treatment of hypothyroidism. The nurse should instruct the client to take the medication at which of the following times?

A. Before bedtime B. With meals C. On an empty stomach D. Any time of the day

Explanation

C) Correct. Levothyroxine sodium should be taken on an empty stomach, preferably 30 minutes to 1 hour before breakfast or at least 3-4 hours after the last meal. Food can interfere with the absorption of levothyroxine, reducing its effectiveness.

A) Incorrect. Taking levothyroxine before bedtime can disrupt sleep due to potential side effects, such as palpitations or insomnia.

B) Incorrect. Taking levothyroxine with meals can interfere with its absorption and reduce its effectiveness.

D) Incorrect. Levothyroxine should be taken at specific times to optimize its absorption and maintain consistent blood levels.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 33 :

A nurse is reviewing the medication regimen of a client with diabetes who is also prescribed corticosteroids. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential effects?

A. Hypoglycemia B. Hypotension C. Hyperglycemia D. Hyperkalemia

Explanation

C) Correct. Corticosteroids can increase blood glucose levels and lead to hyperglycemia. The nurse should monitor the client's blood glucose levels closely and adjust the diabetes management plan accordingly.

A) Incorrect. Corticosteroids can cause hyperglycemia, not hypoglycemia.

B) Incorrect. Hypotension is not a common adverse effect of corticosteroids.

D) Incorrect. Hyperkalemia is not directly associated with corticosteroid use.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 34 :

A client is prescribed metformin for the treatment of type 2 diabetes. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?

A. Hypoglycemia B. Weight gain C. Gastrointestinal upset D. Bradycardia

Explanation

C) Correct. Metformin is known to cause gastrointestinal upset, including symptoms such as nausea, vomiting, diarrhea, and abdominal discomfort. The client should be advised to monitor for these adverse effects and report them to the healthcare provider if they occur.

A) Incorrect. Hypoglycemia is not a common adverse effect of metformin when used as a monotherapy. However, if metformin is used in combination with other antidiabetic medications that can cause hypoglycemia, the risk may increase.

B) Incorrect. Weight gain is not typically associated with metformin. In fact, metformin may be associated with weight loss or weight stabilization in some individuals.

D) Incorrect. Bradycardia is not a known adverse effect of metformin.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 35 :

A nurse is caring for a client who is receiving glucocorticoid therapy. The nurse should monitor the client for which of the following potential adverse effects?

A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypotension C. Hypocalcemia D. Immunosuppression

Explanation

D) Correct. Glucocorticoid therapy can suppress the immune system, increasing the client's risk of infections and delaying wound healing. The nurse should monitor the client for signs of infection and educate the client about measures to prevent infection.

A) Incorrect. Hyperkalemia is not typically associated with glucocorticoid therapy. In fact, glucocorticoids can cause hypokalemia in some cases.

B) Incorrect. Hypotension is not a common adverse effect of glucocorticoid therapy.

C) Incorrect. Glucocorticoids can cause hypercalcemia, not hypocalcemia.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 36 :

A client with hypothyroidism is prescribed levothyroxine sodium. The nurse should instruct the client to report which of the following symptoms, indicating a potential adverse effect of the medication?

A. Weight loss B. Constipation C. Cold intolerance D. Bradycardia

Explanation

D) Correct. Levothyroxine sodium is used to treat hypothyroidism and aims to normalize thyroid hormone levels. However, excessive doses can lead to hyperthyroidism, characterized by symptoms such as tachycardia, palpitations, and tremors. The client should be instructed to report any signs of hyperthyroidism promptly.

A) Incorrect. Weight loss is a desired effect of levothyroxine therapy in individuals with hypothyroidism.

B) Incorrect. Constipation is a symptom associated with hypothyroidism and should improve with levothyroxine therapy.

C) Incorrect. Cold intolerance is a symptom associated with hypothyroidism and should improve with levothyroxine therapy.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

Question 37 :

A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro to a client with diabetes. The nurse should understand that insulin lispro has which of the following characteristics?

A. Rapid onset and short duration of action B. Slow onset and long duration of action C. Intermediate onset and duration of action D. No peak action time

Explanation

A) Correct. Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with a rapid onset of action, typically within 15 minutes, and a short duration of action, lasting about 3-4 hours. It is used to control postprandial glucose levels.

B) Incorrect. Insulin lispro is not characterized by slow onset and long duration of action. This description more closely matches the characteristics of long-acting insulins.

C) Incorrect. Insulin lispro is not characterized by intermediate onset and duration of action. Intermediate-acting insulins, such as NPH insulin, have a slower onset and a longer duration of action.

D) Incorrect. Insulin lispro, like other insulins, has a peak action time. The peak action time refers to the time when the insulin has its maximum effect on lowering blood glucose levels.

Discussion Section

0 Pulse Checks

No comments

End of Questions