The correct answer is choice A, C, and D.

Choice A rationale:

The patient’s oxygen saturation is at 94%, which is just below the normal range of 95-100% for healthy adults breathing room air. Administering oxygen 2 to 4 liters to maintain oxygen saturation at or above 95% is a standard intervention to ensure adequate oxygenation.

Choice B rationale:

A stat ventilation/perfusion (V/Q) scan is typically ordered for suspected pulmonary embolism, which is not indicated by the patient’s current data. The patient’s symptoms do not specifically suggest a V/Q mismatch that would necessitate this diagnostic test.

Choice C rationale:

A chest x-ray is a common diagnostic tool for evaluating the lungs and heart, especially when a patient presents with symptoms that may indicate respiratory or cardiac issues. Given the patient’s temperature and heart rate, which are slightly elevated, a chest x-ray can help identify any potential underlying conditions.

Choice D rationale:

Ordering a CBC, BMP, and blood cultures can help identify the cause of the patient’s fever and tachycardia. These tests provide valuable information about the patient’s immune response, electrolyte balance, kidney function, and whether there is a bacterial infection.

Choice E rationale:

While sending sputum for culture and sensitivity could be helpful if a respiratory infection is suspected, the patient’s data does not strongly indicate a respiratory infection as the primary issue. Therefore, this test may not be the most immediate need.

Choice A rationale:

While some individuals with Crohn's disease may find that avoiding gluten improves their symptoms, this is not a universal recommendation.

Gluten restriction is more often indicated for those with celiac disease or gluten sensitivity.

It's important to individualize dietary recommendations based on personal triggers and sensitivities.

Choice B rationale:

An elimination diet is a systematic approach to identifying foods that may trigger or worsen Crohn's disease symptoms.

It involves removing certain foods from the diet for a period of time, typically 2-4 weeks, and then gradually reintroducing them one at a time to observe any reactions.

This process can help individuals pinpoint specific foods that contribute to their symptoms and make informed dietary choices to manage their condition.

Choice C rationale:

There is no evidence to support a general restriction of calcium and iron in individuals with Crohn's disease.

In fact, these nutrients are essential for overall health and should be consumed in adequate amounts unless a specific deficiency or intolerance is identified.

Restriction of these nutrients could lead to nutritional deficiencies.

Choice D rationale:

Fluid restriction is not a primary dietary limitation for individuals with Crohn's disease.

Maintaining adequate hydration is crucial for overall health, especially during flares when fluid loss through diarrhea may be increased.

Restricting fluids could potentially lead to dehydration and electrolyte imbalances.

Choice A rationale:

Chronic pain is a significant concern for this client, but it is not the immediate priority. Pain can be managed with medications and comfort measures, while aspiration can be life-threatening.

Tissue destruction by the tumor is likely contributing to the pain, but addressing the risk of aspiration takes precedence.

Uncontrolled pain can exacerbate anxiety and make it difficult to focus on other interventions, but ensuring airway safety is paramount.

Choice B rationale:

Anxiety and grieving are expected reactions to a diagnosis of esophageal cancer, and they should be addressed as part of the client's care plan. However, they are not the immediate priority in this case.

The progression of the disease is a significant stressor, but attending to the risk of aspiration is essential for the client's safety. Psychological distress can negatively impact coping and quality of life, but addressing physical needs takes precedence.

Choice D rationale:

Imbalanced nutrition is a concern for this client due to dysphagia and anorexia. However, it is not the immediate priority. Nutritional interventions can be implemented once the risk of aspiration is addressed.

Difficulty swallowing can lead to inadequate intake and malnutrition, but ensuring airway safety is the primary concern.

Anorexia can further contribute to nutritional deficits, but preventing aspiration is the most pressing issue.

Choice C is the priority nursing problem because:

The client's dysphagia puts them at immediate risk for aspiration, which can lead to pneumonia, respiratory failure, and even death.

Addressing the risk of aspiration is essential to ensure the client's safety and prevent life-threatening complications. It's crucial to implement interventions to minimize the risk of aspiration, such as:

Elevating the head of the bed during meals and for 30-60 minutes after eating Thickening liquids and pureeing foods

Encouraging small, frequent meals

Monitoring for signs of aspiration, such as coughing, choking, or difficulty breathing

Measuring oxygen saturation is not directly relevant to the administration of vancomycin or the monitoring of its potential side effects. While oxygen saturation is important to assess in patients with respiratory concerns, it does not provide information about kidney function, which is essential for safe vancomycin use.

Choice B rationale:

Auscultating bowel sounds, while a part of general abdominal assessment, is not the most crucial action before administering vancomycin. Vancomycin is not known to have significant effects on bowel motility, and its primary concern is nephrotoxicity.

Choice C rationale:

Assessing body temperature can be helpful in evaluating for infection, but it is not the most specific or sensitive indicator of vancomycin-related adverse effects. Fever can be a sign of various conditions, and it does not directly assess kidney function.

Choice D rationale:

Checking serum creatinine is the most essential action before administering vancomycin because it allows for assessment of kidney function. Vancomycin is primarily excreted by the kidneys, and impaired renal function can lead to elevated drug levels and increased risk of nephrotoxicity. By checking serum creatinine, the nurse can ensure that the patient's kidney function is adequate to safely excrete vancomycin and can adjust the dosage or frequency of administration if necessary.

Rationale for Choice A: Dysrhythmia

There is no information in the question stem to suggest that the patient is experiencing a dysrhythmia.

Dysrhythmias are abnormal heart rhythms that can be caused by a variety of factors, including heart disease, electrolyte imbalances, and medications.

While it is possible that the patient could develop a dysrhythmia as a complication of pneumonia, there is no evidence to support this in the given information.

Additionally, enalapril, which the patient is taking for hypertension, is not typically associated with an increased risk of dysrhythmias.

Rationale for Choice B: Toxicity

There is no information in the question stem to suggest that the patient is experiencing toxicity.

Toxicity can be caused by a variety of substances, including medications, drugs, and environmental toxins.

While it is possible that the patient could develop toxicity as a complication of pneumonia, there is no evidence to support this in the given information.

Additionally, the patient's medication regimen of enalapril and a multivitamin is not typically associated with an increased risk of toxicity.

Rationale for Choice C: Anemia

There is no information in the question stem to suggest that the patient is anemic.

Anemia is a condition in which there is a decreased number of red blood cells or hemoglobin in the blood.

While it is possible that the patient could develop anemia as a complication of pneumonia, there is no evidence to support this in the given information.

Additionally, the patient's surgical history of adenoid removal and a fractured tibia is not typically associated with an increased risk of anemia.

Rationale for Choice D: Pneumonia

The patient is a 51-year-old male with a diagnosis of pneumonia.

Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi.

The patient's symptoms, such as cough, fever, and difficulty breathing, are all consistent with a diagnosis of pneumonia.

Additionally, the patient's medical history of hypertension does not rule out pneumonia, and in fact, some studies have shown that hypertension may be a risk factor for developing pneumonia.

Therefore, pneumonia is the most likely condition that the patient has based on the information provided.

Choice A rationale:

Pneumonia is the most likely diagnosis given the rapid development of pulmonary infiltrates within a 24-hour period. Pneumonia is an infection of the lungs that can be caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi. It typically presents with symptoms such as fever, cough, shortness of breath, and chest pain. The presence of pulmonary infiltrates on imaging studies, such as a chest X-ray, is a key diagnostic feature of pneumonia.

The distribution of the infiltrates, involving the lower lobes with a predominance on the right side, is also consistent with pneumonia. This is because the lower lobes are more susceptible to pneumonia due to their anatomy and gravity.

The absence of active processes on Day 1 makes other diagnoses less likely. For example, tuberculosis typically develops more slowly over weeks or months, and bronchitis usually does not cause pulmonary infiltrates.

Pulmonary embolism can cause pulmonary infiltrates, but it would typically be associated with other symptoms such as sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and tachycardia.

Choice B rationale:

Tuberculosis is a chronic infection that typically develops slowly over weeks or months. It is less likely to cause rapid development of pulmonary infiltrates as seen in this case.

Tuberculosis often involves the upper lobes of the lungs, and it may be associated with other symptoms such as fever, night sweats, and weight loss.

Choice C rationale:

Bronchitis is an inflammation of the bronchi, the large airways that carry air to the lungs. It typically causes a cough, but it does not usually cause pulmonary infiltrates.

Bronchitis is often caused by a virus, and it usually resolves on its own within a few weeks.

Choice D rationale:

Pulmonary embolism is a blockage of a pulmonary artery, one of the blood vessels that carries blood to the lungs. It can cause pulmonary infiltrates, but it would typically be associated with other symptoms such as sudden onset of shortness of breath, chest pain, and tachycardia.

Pulmonary embolism is often caused by a blood clot that travels from a vein in the leg to the lungs.

The correct answer is Choice D.

Choice A rationale: Auscultating bowel sounds and measuring abdominal girth are not directly related to the management of erosive esophagitis and GERD symptoms. These actions are more pertinent to assessing gastrointestinal motility and distension, not the effectiveness of lansoprazole.

Choice B rationale: Lansoprazole is a proton pump inhibitor that should be taken before meals to reduce stomach acid production effectively. Confirming that the patient is taking the medication before meals could help optimize its efficacy but is not the most immediate step.

Choice C rationale: Notifying the healthcare provider about a potential need for a dosage change may be considered if symptoms persist. However, since healing with proton pump inhibitors can take several weeks, this action may be premature after only one week of use.

Choice D rationale: It is appropriate to inform the patient that healing of erosive esophagitis and symptom relief from GERD can take several weeks with lansoprazole. This education helps set realistic expectations and encourages adherence to the prescribed treatment.

Choice A rationale:

Hemoglobin A1C (HbA1C) is a blood test that reflects a person's average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. It's considered the gold standard for diagnosing and monitoring diabetes.

An HbA1C level of 8.29% is significantly elevated above the reference range of 4-5.99%, indicating a high probability of diabetes.

The patient's HbA1C has also increased from 7.59% three months ago, suggesting a worsening of glycemic control.

Diabetes mellitus is a chronic metabolic disorder characterized by elevated blood glucose levels due to impaired insulin production or action, or both.

Common symptoms of diabetes include increased thirst, frequent urination, fatigue, blurred vision, and slow-healing wounds.

Early diagnosis and treatment of diabetes are crucial to prevent complications such as heart disease, stroke, kidney disease, nerve damage, and vision loss.

Choice B rationale:

Hypoglycemia refers to abnormally low blood glucose levels, typically below 70 mg/dL. It's often caused by excessive insulin or medication, missed meals, or strenuous exercise.

The patient's HbA1C level of 8.29% does not support a diagnosis of hypoglycemia.

Choice C rationale:

Hyperglycemia refers to abnormally high blood glucose levels, typically above 180 mg/dL. It can be caused by diabetes, stress, infection, or certain medications.

While the patient's HbA1C level does indicate hyperglycemia, it's specifically the pattern of elevated HbA1C over time that points to a diagnosis of diabetes mellitus, rather than transient hyperglycemia.

Choice D rationale:

Prediabetes is a condition where blood glucose levels are higher than normal, but not high enough to be classified as diabetes. People with prediabetes are at increased risk of developing diabetes.

The patient's HbA1C level of 8.29% is above the threshold for prediabetes, which is typically 5.7-6.4%.

Choice A rationale:

Radiation exposure to the eye is a serious condition that requires immediate medical attention. However, it is not a contraindication for ophthalmic ketorolac. In fact, ketorolac may be used to treat pain and inflammation associated with radiation exposure to the eye.

Ophthalmic ketorolac is a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID) that works by inhibiting the production of prostaglandins, which are substances that cause inflammation and pain.

Radiation exposure can damage the cells of the eye, leading to inflammation and pain. Ketorolac can help to reduce these symptoms.

However, it is important to note that ketorolac does not address the underlying cause of radiation exposure, and further treatment may be necessary.

Choice B rationale:

Corneal abrasion is a scratch on the surface of the cornea, the clear outer layer of the eye. It is a common eye injury that can be caused by a variety of factors, such as getting poked in the eye, rubbing the eye too hard, or wearing contact lenses for too long.

Ophthalmic ketorolac is contraindicated in patients with corneal abrasions because it can delay healing and increase the risk of infection.

This is because ketorolac inhibits the production of prostaglandins, which are involved in the healing process. Prostaglandins also play a role in fighting infection.

Therefore, using ketorolac in a patient with a corneal abrasion could potentially lead to a more serious infection.

Choice C rationale:

Chemical burn to the eye is a serious injury that requires immediate medical attention. Ophthalmic ketorolac is not typically used to treat chemical burns to the eye.

This is because ketorolac is not effective in reducing inflammation caused by chemical burns. In addition, ketorolac can potentially worsen the injury by delaying healing.

Choice D rationale:

Foreign body in the eye is a common eye injury that can be caused by a variety of objects, such as dust, sand, or metal shavings. Ophthalmic ketorolac is not typically used to treat foreign bodies in the eye.

This is because ketorolac will not help to remove the foreign body from the eye. In addition, ketorolac can potentially worsen the injury by delaying healing.

Choice A rationale:

Direct identification of the causative organism: A culture for sensitive organisms is the most direct and definitive way to identify the specific bacteria or other microorganisms that are causing the infection in the wound. This information is crucial for guiding the selection of the most appropriate antibiotic therapy.

Tailored antibiotic therapy: By knowing the exact organism responsible, healthcare providers can prescribe antibiotics that are specifically effective against that organism, ensuring optimal treatment and reducing the risk of antibiotic resistance.

Informed infection control measures: The results of the culture can also inform appropriate infection control measures to prevent the spread of the infection to other patients or healthcare workers.

Monitoring treatment effectiveness: Cultures can also be used to monitor the effectiveness of antibiotic therapy. If the culture results show that the bacteria are no longer present after a course of antibiotics, this indicates that the treatment has been successful.

Choice B rationale:

Non-specific marker of inflammation: C-reactive protein (CRP) is a non-specific marker of inflammation that can be elevated in various conditions, including infections, but also in non-infectious conditions such as autoimmune diseases and trauma.

Limited diagnostic value for wound infections: While an elevated CRP level may suggest the presence of an infection, it does not provide information about the specific causative organism, which is essential for guiding antibiotic therapy.

Supplementary role: CRP levels can be used in conjunction with other clinical findings and laboratory tests to assess the severity of an infection and monitor the response to treatment, but it should not be relied upon as a sole diagnostic tool for wound infections.

Choice C rationale:

Not directly indicative of wound infection: Blood pH level primarily reflects the acid-base balance of the body and is not directly indicative of a wound infection.

Alterations in other conditions: Blood pH can be altered in various conditions, including respiratory and metabolic disorders, and is not specific to wound infections.

Limited role in diagnosis: While significant alterations in blood pH may suggest a serious systemic infection, it does not provide information about the location or causative organism of the infection.

Choice D rationale:

Not directly related to wound infection: Serum blood glucose level is primarily used to monitor diabetes and is not directly related to wound infections.

Impaired wound healing in diabetes: While elevated blood glucose levels can impair wound healing and increase the risk of infections in diabetic patients, it is not a diagnostic test for wound infections in general.

Secondary consideration: Blood glucose levels may be considered as part of the overall assessment of a patient with a wound infection, particularly in those with diabetes, but it is not a primary diagnostic tool.