A 10-year-old child was diagnosed with migraine headaches at a previous visit. Initial treatment included behavioral modifications, lifestyle changes, and a nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug (NSAID). The child returns for follow-up and states that interventions are not relieving the headaches. The most helpful medication at this time would be:
acetaminophen with codeine.
a tricyclic antidepressant.
sumatriptan (Imitrex).
chloral hydrate (Somnote).
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Acetaminophen with codeine is generally not recommended in children for migraines due to risks of respiratory depression, dependence, and variable metabolism.
B. Tricyclic antidepressants may be used as preventive therapy for frequent or severe migraines but are not first-line for acute relief.
C. Sumatriptan (Imitrex) is a selective serotonin receptor agonist used for acute migraine attacks in children and adolescents. It can provide effective relief when NSAIDs and lifestyle modifications fail.
D. Chloral hydrate is a sedative-hypnotic and is not indicated for treating migraines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Asperger syndrome is characterized by social interaction difficulties and restricted interests but does not typically include pervasive loss of pleasure or significant mood disturbances.
B. Autism spectrum disorder (ASD) involves deficits in social communication and repetitive behaviors, but the core symptoms do not primarily include sleep disturbances, decreased concentration, or anhedonia.
C. Pervasive developmental disorder (PDD) is an outdated term encompassing ASD and related disorders; mood symptoms are not central.
D. Childhood depression is suggested by symptoms such as sleep disturbances, poor school performance, decreased concentration, and anhedonia (loss of pleasure in activities). Early recognition is crucial for timely intervention, including behavioral therapy or pharmacologic treatment if indicated.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Inversion of the foot refers to turning the sole inward, not pes planus.
B. Pes planus is the medical term for flat feet, a condition where the arches of the feet are flattened, allowing the entire sole to touch the ground. It can be flexible or rigid and may be asymptomatic in children.
C. Metatarsus refers to the long bones of the foot, not the arch configuration.
D. Pigeon toe (in-toeing) describes a rotational deformity of the feet, not the flattening of the arches.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
