A 16-year-old patient presents with complaints of diarrhea and malaise for the past 10 days. History reveals that the patient went on a camping trip 3 weeks ago. The patient's stool specimen analysis is positive for Giardia lamblia. The nurse practitioner prescribes metronidazole (Flagyl) and informs the patient that:
a follow-up stool specimen will not be necessary unless symptoms persist.
a follow-up stool specimen is needed within 7 to 14 days.
a follow-up stool specimen is needed within 3 to 4 weeks.
a follow-up stool specimen is needed upon completion of the metronidazole (Flagyl) regimen.
The Correct Answer is C
Rationale:
A. Giardia infections can persist or recur; monitoring is recommended even if symptoms improve.
B. 7–14 days may be too soon for reliable detection of persistent infection, as cysts may not yet be shed consistently.
C. A follow-up stool specimen 3 to 4 weeks after treatment ensures eradication of Giardia lamblia and confirms that the infection has resolved, especially since cyst shedding may be intermittent.
D. Testing immediately upon completion of metronidazole may yield false-negative results due to intermittent cyst shedding; waiting a few weeks provides a more accurate assessment.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Applying acetic acid to the external genitalia before chemical ablation is NOT recommended. Acetic acid is sometimes used for diagnostic purposes (to highlight lesions by turning them white), but it can irritate the skin and increase the risk of chemical injury when combined with podophyllin.
B. Applying petroleum jelly around the lesions is appropriate because it protects surrounding healthy skin from the caustic effects of podophyllin.
C. Using a cotton-tipped wooden applicator is the correct technique to apply podophyllin precisely to the lesions without spreading it to healthy tissue.
D. Dusting the lesions with talcum powder after ablation helps absorb residual medication and reduce local irritation, which is considered standard post-application care.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Amoxicillin (Amoxil) is sometimes used for prophylaxis in young children, but its efficacy against common urinary pathogens and resistance patterns is lower compared with trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole.
B. Ciprofloxacin (Cipro) is not typically recommended for routine prophylaxis in children due to potential adverse effects on developing cartilage.
C. Sulfamethoxazole and trimethoprim (Bactrim) is the preferred first-line antibiotic for prophylaxis in children with vesicoureteral reflux. It is effective against E. coli and other common urinary pathogens, has a favorable safety profile, and is widely used in this age group for long-term low-dose prophylaxis.
D. Cephalexin (Keflex) can be used in some cases but is generally considered second-line compared with Bactrim for continuous prophylaxis.
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