A 21-year-old man with a T-5 spinal cord injury presents to the urgent care clinic where the nurse practitioner (NP) is working. He says he was out to dinner with a friend when he suddenly began to feel lightheaded. Now, he reports symptoms of diaphoresis, flushed face and neck, and severe headache. Upon assessment, the NP finds bradycardia and severe hypertension. Which of the following has NOT been used as treatment for autonomic dysreflexia?
Minocycline (Minocin)
OnabotulinumtoxinA (Botox)
Nifedipine (Adalat)
Lidocaine (Xylocaine)
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A reason: Minocycline is a tetracycline antibiotic and has not been established as a treatment for autonomic dysreflexia. While it has neuroprotective and anti-inflammatory properties in experimental models, it is not part of the clinical management protocol for autonomic dysreflexia.
Choice B reason: OnabotulinumtoxinA (Botox) has been used in patients with neurogenic bladder or spasticity, which can contribute to autonomic dysreflexia. It helps reduce bladder overactivity and prevent triggering episodes.
Choice C reason: Nifedipine, a calcium channel blocker, is commonly used to manage acute hypertension in autonomic dysreflexia. It reduces blood pressure quickly and is considered a first-line agent in emergent settings.
Choice D reason: Lidocaine may be used to suppress afferent stimuli during procedures such as catheterization, which can trigger autonomic dysreflexia. It helps block nociceptive input and prevent reflex sympathetic discharge.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: While a hematology consultation may be appropriate in severe or persistent cases, the immediate action required at an ANC of 1,100/μL is to interrupt clozapine therapy due to the risk of agranulocytosis. This value falls below the threshold for safe continuation.
Choice B reason: Continuing treatment at an ANC of 1,100/μL is contraindicated. Clozapine carries a risk of severe neutropenia, and guidelines recommend interruption of therapy when ANC drops below 1,500/μL, with more urgent action below 1,000/μL.
Choice C reason: Interrupting treatment is the correct action. An ANC of 1,100/μL indicates moderate neutropenia, and clozapine should be paused to prevent progression to agranulocytosis. Monitoring and potential re-initiation may follow depending on recovery.
Choice D reason: Suspending treatment implies a more permanent cessation. While this may be necessary if neutropenia worsens or recurs, the initial step at this ANC level is interruption, not full suspension.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: While schizophrenia often begins in late adolescence or early adulthood, this age range is more typical for males. Women tend to have a slightly later onset, often in their late twenties to early thirties.
Choice B reason: The typical age of onset for schizophrenia in women is between 25 and 35 years. This later onset compared to men may be influenced by hormonal factors such as estrogen, which has neuroprotective effects and may delay symptom emergence.
Choice C reason: The 16–20 age range is more characteristic of early-onset schizophrenia, which is rare and more frequently observed in males. It is not the typical age range for women.
Choice D reason: Onset between 40–50 years is considered late-onset schizophrenia, which is uncommon and more frequently seen in women, but it is not typical. Most cases in women begin earlier.
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