A 24-year-old female client comes to the ambulatory care center in moderate distress with a probable diagnosis of acute cystitis.Which symptom should the nurse expect the client to report during the assessment?

Dysuria.

Nasal congestion.

Joint pain.

Shortness of breath.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Choice A rationale

Dysuria, or painful urination, is a common symptom of acute cystitis (bladder infection). Clients with acute cystitis often report burning sensations during urination and frequent urges to urinate.

Choice B rationale

Nasal congestion is not a symptom associated with acute cystitis. It is more commonly related to respiratory conditions like colds or allergies.

Choice C rationale

Joint pain is not related to acute cystitis. Joint pain can be associated with various musculoskeletal or autoimmune conditions, but not typically with a bladder infection.

Choice D rationale

Shortness of breath is not a symptom of acute cystitis. This symptom is more relevant to respiratory or cardiovascular conditions, not bladder infections.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["31"]

Explanation

Step 1 is: Convert hours to minutes: 8 hours × 60 minutes/hour = 480 minutes.

Step 2 is: Calculate the drops/minute: (1000 mL ÷ 480 minutes) × 15 gtts/mL.

Step 3 is: Perform the division: 1000 mL ÷ 480 minutes ≈ 2.0833 mL/min.

Step 4 is: Perform the multiplication: 2.0833 mL/min × 15 gtts/mL ≈ 31.25 drops/min.

Step 5 is: Round the answer to the nearest whole number: 31 drops/min.

Final calculated answer: 31 drops/min.

A. Monitoring blood glucose levels more frequently. B. Increasing sodium intake. C. Stopping all other diabetes medications. D. Skipping meals to prevent hyperglycemia.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Monitoring blood glucose levels more frequently is critical when a client with type 1 diabetes is taking prednisone, as corticosteroids can raise blood glucose levels and potentially cause hyperglycemia.

Choice B rationale

Increasing sodium intake is not recommended for clients with type 1 diabetes and is unrelated to the management of prednisone-induced hyperglycemia.

Choice C rationale

Stopping all other diabetes medications is inappropriate and can lead to uncontrolled blood glucose levels. Adjustments may be needed, but discontinuation is not advised without medical supervision.

Choice D rationale

Skipping meals to prevent hyperglycemia is not a safe practice for clients with type 1 diabetes. Maintaining a balanced diet and monitoring blood glucose levels is essential.

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A 24-year-old female client comes to the ambulatory care center in moderate distress with a probable diagnosis of acute cystitis.Which symptom should the nurse expect the client to report during the assessment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["31"]

Explanation

A client diagnosed with type 1 diabetes is prescribed prednisone for acute exacerbation of inflammatory bowel disease.Which intervention should the nurse discuss with the client?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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