A 25-year-old client experienced a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins and is now transferred to the postpartum unit.

What complication should the nurse prioritize during the client’s assessment?

Hard, painful uterine afterpains.

Disseminated intravascular coagulation.

Postpartum psychosis.

Placenta accreta.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A rationale

While hard, painful uterine afterpains can be uncomfortable for the patient, they are a normal part of the postpartum period and are not typically a priority complication following a severe postpartum hemorrhage16.

Choice B rationale

Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) is a serious condition that can occur as a complication of severe postpartum hemorrhage. It involves an overactive clotting process leading to the formation of small blood clots that can block blood vessels and cause significant organ damage16.

Choice C rationale

Postpartum psychosis is a serious mental health disorder that can occur after childbirth. However, it is not directly related to postpartum hemorrhage and would not typically be the priority complication in this scenario16.

Choice D rationale

Placenta accreta is a condition where the placenta grows too deeply into the uterine wall. While it can cause severe bleeding after delivery, it would not typically be a priority complication to assess for following a severe postpartum hemorrhage16.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A rationale

Poor appetite can be a symptom of many neonatal conditions, but it's not the most common complication specifically associated with cephalhematoma.

Choice B rationale

Cephalhematomas are caused by the rupture of blood vessels between the skull and periosteum, resulting in a blood collection. The breakdown of red blood cells in this trapped blood can lead to the release of bilirubin, increasing an infant's risk for hyperbilirubinemia and jaundice.

Choice C rationale

Hypoglycemia is a potential concern in neonates but is not directly related to cephalhematoma.

Choice D rationale

While brain damage is a serious potential complication in cases of severe skull trauma, it's not typically associated with cephalhematoma alone. Cephalhematomas usually resolve on their own without long-term consequences.

A. Clear the infant’s vision. B. Dilate the pupil so the red reflex can be visualized. C. Prevent herpes infection. D. Prevent eye infections.

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A rationale

The eye ointment used in newborns is not intended to clear the infant’s vision.

Choice B rationale

The purpose of the eye ointment is not to dilate the pupil for visualization of the red reflex.

Choice C rationale

While the ointment does help prevent infections, it is not specifically targeted against herpes.

Choice D rationale

The primary purpose of the eye ointment is to prevent eye infections in newborns. This is particularly important as mothers who have a sexually transmitted infection (STI) can pass it to their newborns during childbirth, putting them at risk for an eye infection known as ophthalmia neonatorum (ON)1.

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A 25-year-old client experienced a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins and is now transferred to the postpartum unit.What complication should the nurse prioritize during the client’s assessment?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A neonate, who is one day old, develops a cephalhematoma.Which common complication should the nurse assess this neonate for?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A father watching the admission of his newborn to the nursery notices that eye ointment is placed in the infant’s eyes. He asks the nurse what is the purpose of the ointment.The nurse would be correct in stating that the purpose for using the ointment is to:

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A client who is 3 weeks postpartum tells the nurse, “I am so tired all the time. I didn’t realize having a baby would be this challenging.”. What should the nurse’s response be?

The healthcare provider prescribes magnesium sulfate 4 grams intravenously (IV) to be infused over 20 minutes for a client with preeclampsia. The IV bag contains magnesium sulfate 20 grams in dextrose 5% in water 500 mL. How many mL/hour should the nurse program the infusion pump?

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While conducting a daily assessment of a one-day-old newborn, the nurse notices a yellow tint on the baby’s forehead, sternum, and abdomen.What should be the nurse’s next course of action?

What physical assessment data should the nurse consider a normal finding for a primigravida client who is 12 hours postpartum?

A client at 10-weeks gestation calls the clinic reporting a low-grade fever, moderate cramping, and heavy bright-red bleeding.What advice should the nurse give the client?

After breastfeeding for 10 minutes on each breast, a new mother calls the nurse to the postpartum room to assist with changing the newborn’s diaper. As the mother begins the diaper change, the newborn regurgitates the breast milk. What should be the nurse’s first action?

One day after vaginal delivery of a full-term baby, a postpartum client’s white blood cell count is 15,000/mm (15 x 109/L). What action should the nurse take first?

A 25-year-old client experienced a severe postpartum hemorrhage following the vaginal birth of twins and is now transferred to the postpartum unit.

What complication should the nurse prioritize during the client’s assessment?