A 25-year-old patient with generalized anxiety disorder presents to the ED with shortness of breath, dizziness, and tingling in the fingers. The nurse reviews the ABG results: pH: 7.50, PaCO2: 30 mmHg HCO3: 24 mEq/L. What is the most likely acid-base imbalance?

Respiratory acidosis

Metabolic alkalosis

Respiratory alkalosis

Metabolic acidosis

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Respiratory acidosis would present with a low pH (acidotic) and a high PaCO2, which is not the case here.

B. Metabolic alkalosis would be suggested by an elevated pH and elevated HCO3, but here, the bicarbonate level is normal (24 mEq/L).

C. Respiratory alkalosis is indicated by a pH of 7.50 (alkalosis) and a PaCO2 of 30 mmHg, which is lower than the normal range (35-45 mmHg). This low PaCO2 suggests that the patient is hyperventilating, likely due to anxiety, which causes the body to excrete too much CO2.

D. Metabolic acidosis would present with a low pH and a low bicarbonate level, neither of which are seen in this case.

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Free Nursing Study Resources

Correct Answer is ["1"]

Explanation

Step 1: Determine the dose per administration.

Total daily dose: 1.5 mg
Number of doses per day: 3
Dose per administration: 1.5 mg / 3 = 0.5 mg

Step 2: Calculate the number of tablets per dose.

Available tablet strength: 0.5 mg
Required dose per administration: 0.5 mg

Therefore, the nurse should administer 1 tablet per dose.

A. Persistent low-grade depression without hypomania B. Psychosis during manic episodes C. Hypomanic episodes alternating with major depressive episodes D. Severe manic episodes

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Persistent low-grade depression without hypomania is not typical of bipolar II disorder, as hypomanic episodes are a key feature of the disorder.

B. Psychosis is more common during full manic episodes, typically seen in bipolar I disorder, not bipolar II.

C. Bipolar II disorder is characterized by hypomanic episodes that alternate with major depressive episodes. Hypomania is a less severe form of mania, and individuals with bipolar II do not experience full manic episodes as in bipolar I.

D. Severe manic episodes are characteristic of bipolar I disorder, not bipolar II, which involves hypomanic episodes instead.

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A 25-year-old patient with generalized anxiety disorder presents to the ED with shortness of breath, dizziness, and tingling in the fingers. The nurse reviews the ABG results: pH: 7.50, PaCO2: 30 mmHg HCO3: 24 mEq/L. What is the most likely acid-base imbalance?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Correct Answer is ["1"]

Explanation

A patient with bipolar II disorder is most likely to experience:

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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