Which patient is at the highest risk of developing postpartum depression?

A mother who had a healthy pregnancy and delivery

A first-time mother with a supportive partner

A mother with a history of depression and minimal social support

A mother with no family history of mental illness

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. A mother with a healthy pregnancy and delivery has a lower risk, though postpartum depression can still occur, it is not as likely as in cases with more risk factors.

B. A first-time mother with a supportive partner has protective factors such as a strong support system, reducing the risk of postpartum depression.

C. A history of depression and minimal social support are significant risk factors for postpartum depression. Previous mental health issues increase the likelihood of postpartum mood disorders, and lack of support makes coping more difficult.

D. A lack of a family history of mental illness does not eliminate the risk of postpartum depression, especially if other risk factors, such as previous depression or limited support, are present.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. While support groups may be helpful, the immediate intervention for a client experiencing heightened anxiety and hypervigilance is to provide structure and safety.

B. Mindfulness meditation may be beneficial in the long term, but it is not the first intervention in an acute phase where anxiety and hypervigilance are prominent.

C. A structured environment with predictable routines and consistent staff can help clients with PTSD feel more secure and reduce feelings of anxiety, hypervigilance, and paranoia. Predictability and structure are key interventions for clients with PTSD.

D. Administering a PRN sedative medication should be a secondary intervention after providing a supportive and safe environment. Medications may be used as part of treatment, but they do not address the underlying anxiety and hypervigilance as effectively as a structured environment.

A. Fear of impending doom B. Obsessions C. Apathy D. Fever

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. A common symptom of panic attacks is the intense feeling of fear of impending doom, which can overwhelm the individual during an attack. The client may feel like something catastrophic is going to happen, even if no actual threat exists.

B. Obsessions are more commonly associated with obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD), not panic attacks.

C. Apathy, or lack of emotion or interest, is typically not associated with panic attacks but may be seen in depression or certain other mental health conditions.

D. Fever is not a symptom of panic attacks but could be indicative of an infection or illness.

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Which patient is at the highest risk of developing postpartum depression?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A client with PTSD experiences exaggerated startle response. The client is paranoid and hypervigilant. Which nursing intervention is most appropriate?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A symptom commonly associated with panic attacks?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the antagonist action of medications. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following antagonist medications is used for benzodiazepines?

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A nurse is planning care for a client who is in the manic phase of bipolar disorder. Which of the following interventions should the nurse include in the client's plan of care?

A nurse is caring for a newly admitted client who has obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?

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