A 26-year-old woman with a history of suicide attempts and unstable romantic relationships has tried many forms of medications without success. Which form of therapy will be most effective for her?
Cognitive behavioral therapy
Solution-focused therapy
Humanistic therapy
Dialectical behavioral therapy
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Cognitive behavioral therapy (CBT) is effective for many mood and anxiety disorders, but it may not adequately address the emotional dysregulation, impulsivity, and interpersonal instability seen in borderline personality disorder, which this case suggests.
Choice B reason: Solution-focused therapy is brief and goal-oriented, emphasizing future solutions rather than past problems. While helpful for some clients, it lacks the depth and structure needed to manage chronic suicidality and emotional instability.
Choice C reason: Humanistic therapy focuses on personal growth and self-actualization. It emphasizes empathy and unconditional positive regard but may not provide the behavioral tools necessary for managing high-risk behaviors and emotional dysregulation.
Choice D reason: Dialectical behavioral therapy (DBT) was specifically developed for individuals with borderline personality disorder and chronic suicidality. It combines cognitive-behavioral techniques with mindfulness and emotion regulation strategies. DBT has strong evidence for reducing self-harm, improving emotional regulation, and enhancing interpersonal effectiveness.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A reason: Mirtazapine is a sedating antidepressant that can cause significant weight gain and increased appetite. Given the patient’s elevated BMI, this side effect profile may worsen his metabolic status and is not ideal as a first-line option.
Choice B reason: Fluoxetine is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) and is generally weight-neutral or mildly weight-reducing. However, it can cause sexual dysfunction, which is already a concern for this patient. It may also exacerbate insomnia in some individuals.
Choice C reason: Bupropion is a norepinephrine-dopamine reuptake inhibitor (NDRI) that is activating and can improve energy, motivation, and concentration. It is associated with weight loss and has a lower risk of sexual side effects compared to SSRIs, making it the most appropriate initial choice for this patient’s symptom profile and BMI.
Choice D reason: Nortriptyline is a tricyclic antidepressant with anticholinergic side effects and potential for weight gain. It is not typically used as a first-line agent due to its side effect burden and cardiovascular risks, especially in patients with metabolic concerns.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A reason: Parkinson’s disease is a neurodegenerative disorder characterized by tremors, rigidity, and bradykinesia. While it involves abnormal movements, the AIMS test is not designed to assess Parkinsonian symptoms specifically.
Choice B reason: Huntington’s disease is a genetic disorder that causes progressive motor dysfunction, cognitive decline, and psychiatric symptoms. Although it includes involuntary movements, the AIMS test is not used for its diagnosis or monitoring.
Choice C reason: Chorea refers to rapid, involuntary movements often seen in Huntington’s disease and other conditions. While chorea may be observed during an AIMS test, the scale is not designed to diagnose chorea itself.
Choice D reason: Tardive dyskinesia is a late-onset movement disorder caused by long-term use of antipsychotic medications, including ziprasidone. The AIMS test is specifically designed to detect and monitor symptoms of tardive dyskinesia, such as facial grimacing, tongue movements, and limb jerking.
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