A 28-year-old female client presents to the clinic with lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge. Upon assessment, the nurse suspects Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize when caring for this client?

Administer broad-spectrum antibiotics as prescribed.

Encourage the client to drink at least 2 liters of fluid per day to promote hydration

Instruct the client to refrain from sexual activity until the infection is resolved.

Prepare the client for a laparoscopic procedure to visualize the pelvic organs.

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

Rationale:
A. Administering broad-spectrum antibiotics promptly is the priority because PID is a serious infection that can cause complications if not treated urgently.
B. Encouraging hydration is important but secondary to initiating antibiotic therapy.
C. Sexual abstinence is part of education but not the immediate priority in acute care.
D. Laparoscopy may be used for diagnosis but is not the first step in management.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Applying heat in the first 24–48 hours after a sprain can increase swelling and is not recommended. Cold therapy (ice) is preferred initially to reduce inflammation.
B. Wrapping should start from the toes and move upward toward the knee to promote venous return and proper compression, not from the knee down.
C. Bearing weight too soon can worsen the injury; rest and limited movement are advised initially.
D. Applying ice during the first 24–48 hours helps reduce swelling and pain, and is an appropriate self-care measure for a recent ankle sprain, indicating proper understanding of discharge instructions.

A. Has a glass of wine with dinner each day B. History of bulimia C. Drinks green tea D. History of NSAID use

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Rationale:
A. Moderate alcohol intake (e.g., a glass of wine daily) is not a primary risk factor, though excessive alcohol use may contribute to gastric irritation.
B. Bulimia can cause GI issues like esophagitis, but it is not a primary risk factor for peptic ulcers.
C. Green tea is not known to contribute to peptic ulcer development.
D. Chronic use of nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) is a well-established risk factor for peptic ulcers, as they inhibit prostaglandin synthesis, reducing the protective lining of the stomach.

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A 28-year-old female client presents to the clinic with lower abdominal pain, fever, and vaginal discharge. Upon assessment, the nurse suspects Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID). Which of the following actions should the nurse prioritize when caring for this client?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse is discharging a client who came to the outpatient clinic with an ankle sprain. Which of the following statements should the nurse identify as an indication that the client understands the discharge instructions?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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