A 29-year-old women presents to the ER with chest pain that started this evening. She has experienced episodes like this before which typically occur in the evening and resolve by the next morning. The client has a medical history of migraines and Raynaud's disease.
Temp: 98 F
BP: 119/72 mm/Hg
HR: 99 bpm
RR: 16 bpm
Sp02: 96% RA
An EKG is completed and indicates no evidence of a myocardial infarction but supports the diagnosis of Prinzmetal Angina. The nurse finds the client crying stating, "I'm so young, how can my heart arteries be clogged? I eat healthy and the doctor said my cholesterol was normal." What is the nurses best response?
"This condition is caused by the coronary arteries spasming, not by cholesterol."
"Just because you're young and eat right doesn't mean you can't have plaque buildup."
"I understand it can be upsetting to have coronary artery disease at your age."
"I am sure everything will be alright."
The Correct Answer is A
A. The best response is to educate the client about the cause of Prinzmetal angina. It occurs due to spasm in the coronary arteries, which is different from the plaque buildup seen in traditional coronary artery disease. This response addresses the client's concern in an accurate and reassuring manner.
B. While healthy eating is important, Prinzmetal angina is not typically caused by cholesterol or plaque buildup. This response could increase the client's anxiety.
C. While acknowledging the client's emotions is important, this response does not address the underlying concern or provide an accurate explanation of Prinzmetal angina.
D. Offering reassurance without providing accurate information about the condition does not help the client understand the cause of their symptoms and could leave them confused or anxious.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
A. A urine output lower than fluid intake over 8 hours is important to monitor but does not require immediate intervention compared to neurological deficits.
B. A headache rated 5/10 is a symptom of hypertensive emergency but not as critical as a loss of motor function, which indicates possible stroke.
C. Inability to move the left arm or leg is a neurological deficit suggestive of a stroke, which is a medical emergency requiring immediate reporting and intervention.
D. Tremors when extending the arms may indicate a less acute neurological or metabolic issue and are not as urgent as paralysis.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Digoxin is used to control the heart rate in atrial fibrillation but does not directly prevent the common complication of thromboembolism.
B. Warfarin is an anticoagulant used to prevent thromboembolic complications, such as stroke, which are common in atrial fibrillation due to the formation of clots in the atria.
C. Furosemide is a diuretic used to manage fluid retention, often in heart failure, but it does not prevent thromboembolism.
D. Lisinopril is an ACE inhibitor used to manage hypertension and heart failure, but it does not prevent thromboembolic complications.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.