A 29-year-old women presents to the ER with chest pain that started this evening. She has experienced episodes like this before which typically occur in the evening and resolve by the next morning. The client has a medical history of migraines and Raynaud's disease.
Temp: 98 F
BP: 119/72 mm/Hg
HR: 99 bpm
RR: 16 bpm
Sp02: 96% RA
An EKG is completed and indicates no evidence of a myocardial infarction but supports the diagnosis of Prinzmetal Angina. The nurse finds the client crying stating, "I'm so young, how can my heart arteries be clogged? I eat healthy and the doctor said my cholesterol was normal." What is the nurses best response?
"This condition is caused by the coronary arteries spasming, not by cholesterol."
"Just because you're young and eat right doesn't mean you can't have plaque buildup."
"I understand it can be upsetting to have coronary artery disease at your age."
"I am sure everything will be alright."
The Correct Answer is A
A. The best response is to educate the client about the cause of Prinzmetal angina. It occurs due to spasm in the coronary arteries, which is different from the plaque buildup seen in traditional coronary artery disease. This response addresses the client's concern in an accurate and reassuring manner.
B. While healthy eating is important, Prinzmetal angina is not typically caused by cholesterol or plaque buildup. This response could increase the client's anxiety.
C. While acknowledging the client's emotions is important, this response does not address the underlying concern or provide an accurate explanation of Prinzmetal angina.
D. Offering reassurance without providing accurate information about the condition does not help the client understand the cause of their symptoms and could leave them confused or anxious.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A client with low blood pressure (98/58 mm Hg) who requires a beta blocker should be seen first because beta blockers can lower blood pressure further, possibly leading to hypotension or dizziness.
B. A hypertensive client with a blood pressure of 156/90 mm Hg is stable and does not require immediate intervention.
C. While pain medication is important, it is not as urgent as addressing a client with low blood pressure and a medication that can worsen the condition.
D. The client who just had captopril can wait to use the bathroom, as the priority is addressing their blood pressure and captopril's effect.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. A small, mobile, rubbery lump is often benign, such as a fibroadenoma.
B. A nontender, fixed breast nodule is concerning for malignancy, and further evaluation is necessary, such as imaging or biopsy.
C. Tender, bilateral nodules are commonly seen in benign conditions like fibrocystic breast changes, especially related to the menstrual cycle.
D. A lump that changes in size before menstruation is also typical of benign conditions like fibrocystic changes.
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