A 32-year-old woman was diagnosed with schizophrenia approximately 4 years ago. She has been stable on haloperidol for 1 year, following trials with several atypical antipsychotics. Two weeks ago, she began exhibiting mild pseudo-Parkinson's disease symptoms. Because she did not achieve symptom control on so many medications, the PMHNP is reluctant to discontinue the haloperidol and instead chooses to treat the side effect. Which class of medications is the most appropriate for treating these side effects?
Cholinesterase inhibitor
Histamine 1 antagonist
Alpha 1 adrenergic agonist
Muscarinic 1 agonist
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A reason: Cholinesterase inhibitors are primarily used in the treatment of Alzheimer’s disease and other dementias. They enhance cholinergic transmission but are not used to treat extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS) like pseudo-Parkinsonism.
Choice B reason: Histamine 1 antagonists are typically used for allergic reactions and sleep disorders. They do not address dopamine-related motor side effects caused by antipsychotics.
Choice C reason: Alpha 1 adrenergic agonists are used for hypotension and nasal congestion. They do not have a role in managing EPS or Parkinsonian symptoms.
Choice D reason: Muscarinic 1 agonists (or more accurately, anticholinergic agents targeting muscarinic receptors) are effective in treating EPS, including pseudo-Parkinsonism. Drugs like benztropine and trihexyphenidyl work by restoring the balance between dopamine and acetylcholine in the basal ganglia, alleviating motor symptoms induced by dopamine blockade from antipsychotics.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: The anal stage, occurring around ages 1 to 3, is associated with issues of control, orderliness, and autonomy. Fixation at this stage may result in traits such as obsessiveness or rigidity, not substance use or oral behaviors.
Choice B reason: The oral stage is the first stage in Freud’s psychosexual development (birth to 1 year). It centers on pleasure derived from oral activities such as sucking and eating. Fixation at this stage is linked to behaviors such as smoking, overeating, nail-biting, and alcohol use—making it the most appropriate answer.
Choice C reason: The phallic stage (ages 3 to 6) involves the Oedipus and Electra complexes and focuses on genital awareness. Fixation here may lead to issues with authority or sexual identity, not oral behaviors.
Choice D reason: The latent stage (ages 6 to puberty) is a period of relative calm in psychosexual development, where sexual impulses are repressed. Fixation here is not typically associated with substance use or oral behaviors.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A reason: Self-efficacy theory focuses on an individual’s belief in their ability to perform specific behaviors. It does not explain why someone avoids preventive care due to perceived risks or benefits.
Choice B reason: The Health Belief Model explains health behaviors based on perceived susceptibility, severity, benefits, and barriers. It is the most appropriate framework for understanding why someone might avoid preventive care due to low perceived risk or high perceived barriers.
Choice C reason: Maslow’s Hierarchy of Needs is a motivational theory that prioritizes physiological and safety needs before higher-level psychological needs. While it may indirectly influence health behavior, it does not specifically address preventive care decisions.
Choice D reason: The Transtheoretical Model of Change describes stages of behavior change (e.g., precontemplation, contemplation). It is useful for guiding interventions but does not explain the underlying beliefs driving avoidance of care.
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