A 33-year-old man is seeking medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid use disorder (OUD). He says he wants a medication that he will not become "addicted" to. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice?

Naloxone

Naltrexone

Buprenorphine

Buprenorphine/Naloxone

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A reason: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose. It is not used as a standalone maintenance treatment for opioid use disorder and has no role in long-term MAT. It is short-acting and not suitable for daily use.

Choice B reason: Naltrexone is a long-acting opioid antagonist that blocks the effects of opioids without producing euphoria or physical dependence. It is non-addictive and does not cause withdrawal symptoms when discontinued. It is ideal for individuals who want a non-addictive MAT option and are fully detoxified from opioids.

Choice C reason: Buprenorphine is a partial opioid agonist that reduces cravings and withdrawal symptoms. While it has a lower risk of addiction than full agonists, it can still cause physical dependence and withdrawal upon discontinuation.

Choice D reason: Buprenorphine/Naloxone is a combination used to reduce misuse potential. However, it still contains buprenorphine, which can lead to physical dependence. It is not the best choice for someone explicitly seeking a non-addictive option.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason: The PHQ-9 is a depression screening tool that includes one item on suicidal ideation. While useful for identifying depression and some suicide risk, it is not designed to assess comprehensive suicide risk, especially in individuals with borderline personality disorder.

Choice B reason: The SBQ-R is specifically designed to assess suicide risk. It evaluates lifetime suicidal ideation and attempts, frequency of ideation, threat of suicide, and self-reported likelihood of future suicidal behavior. It is validated for use in both clinical and non-clinical populations and is particularly useful in assessing risk in individuals with borderline personality disorder.

Choice C reason: The ACSS-FAD measures fearlessness about death, which is a component of the interpersonal theory of suicide. While it provides insight into one aspect of suicide risk, it does not assess overall risk or history of suicidal behavior.

Choice D reason: The INQ assesses perceived burdensomeness and thwarted belongingness, which are psychological states associated with suicide risk. However, it does not directly evaluate suicidal behavior or intent, making it less comprehensive than the SBQ-R.

A. Call the police to inform them of the threat. B. Call the potential victim to warn him of the threat. C. Call the girlfriend to warn her of the threat, so she can let her ex-husband know. D. Do nothing; this would violate confidentiality.

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Choice A reason: When a patient makes a credible threat of serious harm to an identifiable individual, the PMHNP has a duty to warn and protect. This includes notifying law enforcement to prevent potential violence. This action is supported by legal precedents such as the Tarasoff ruling and aligns with ethical obligations to protect third parties.

Choice B reason: While warning the potential victim may seem appropriate, it is not the most secure or legally sound method. Law enforcement is better equipped to assess and manage threats, and direct contact with the victim may pose risks or violate procedural safeguards.

Choice C reason: Indirectly warning the victim through a third party is unreliable and may delay intervention. It also risks breaching confidentiality without ensuring the threat is properly addressed.

Choice D reason: Doing nothing in the face of a credible threat violates both ethical and legal responsibilities. Confidentiality has limits, especially when public safety is at risk.

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A 33-year-old man is seeking medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid use disorder (OUD). He says he wants a medication that he will not become "addicted" to. Which of the following is the most appropriate choice?

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

During an appointment with his psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner (PMHNP), a 35-year-old man makes a credible threat to murder the ex-husband of his girlfriend. Of the following, what should the PMHNP do?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

In substance use disorder, dopamine is released within the reward center of the brain. Where is this located?

In quantitative research, inferential statistics are numerical values that enable a researcher to reach conclusions that extend beyond the immediate data alone. Which inferential statistic describes the probability of a particular result occurring by chance alone?

A 48-year-old man with a new diagnosis of chronic low back pain requests a prescription for opioids. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?

A PMHNP works at an inpatient substance use disorder facility that provides medically supervised detoxification services. Which of the following assessment tools is the facility most likely to utilize for clients seeking alcohol detoxification?

A 29-year-old pregnant woman is referred to the psychiatric-mental health nurse practitioner for medication-assisted treatment (MAT) for opioid use disorder (OUD). Which of the following will the PMHNP prescribe?

The PMHNP is working at an outpatient substance use facility clinic that provides treatment with buprenorphine. Which of the following is the clinic most likely to use in its policies and procedures prior to the induction of buprenorphine?