A 40-year-old client reports chronic lower back pain and stiffness. X-rays of the lumbar spine confirm the diagnosis of moderate to severe osteoarthritis. The nurse identifies which predisposing factor may have led to these degenerative changes?

Weekly aerobic exercise at a gym

Vitamin D deficiency

Weight of <60 kg

Trauma

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Choice A Reason:
Weekly aerobic exercise at a gym is generally beneficial for joint health and is not a predisposing factor for osteoarthritis. Regular physical activity helps maintain joint flexibility, muscle strength, and overall health, which can actually help prevent the development of osteoarthritis.

Choice B Reason:
Vitamin D deficiency has been associated with an increased risk of osteoarthritis. Vitamin D is essential for bone health, and a deficiency can lead to changes in bone structure and strength, potentially contributing to the development and progression of osteoarthritis.

Choice C Reason:
A weight of less than 60 kg does not typically predispose an individual to osteoarthritis. In fact, maintaining a healthy weight can reduce the risk of developing osteoarthritis, as excess body weight can increase the stress on joints.

Choice D Reason:
Trauma can lead to post-traumatic osteoarthritis, which is a form of osteoarthritis that develops after an injury to a joint. Traumatic injuries can damage the cartilage and bone, leading to degenerative changes and osteoarthritis.

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

Choice A reason:
A respiratory rate of 24/min is slightly elevated, which can be expected in a client with pneumonia due to the body's attempt to increase oxygen intake and carbon dioxide elimination. However, this rate does not directly indicate ineffective airway clearance.

Choice B reason:
A weak, nonproductive cough is a key indicator of ineffective airway clearance. In pneumonia, the presence of secretions in the airways is common, and an effective cough is necessary to clear these secretions. A weak cough that does not produce sputum suggests that the client is unable to clear their airways effectively, which can lead to impaired gas exchange and worsening of symptoms.

Choice C reason:
Pulse oximetry (SpO2) of 90% indicates that the client's oxygen saturation is below the normal range, which is typically between 95-100% for healthy individuals. While this finding is concerning and warrants intervention, it is a result of ineffective airway clearance rather than a direct indicator of it.

Choice D reason:
Shortness of breath with activity is common in clients with pneumonia and can result from various factors, including impaired gas exchange, decreased lung compliance, and increased work of breathing. While it may be associated with ineffective airway clearance, it is not as specific as a weak, nonproductive cough for indicating this particular problem.

A. The fetus is likely to have a congenital anomaly, be growth restricted, or demonstrate fetal distress during labor. B. There is an elevated level of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid. C. The client is carrying more than one fetus. D. An excessive amount of amniotic fluid is present

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Choice A reason:

While polyhydramnios can be associated with congenital anomalies or fetal distress, it is not a direct indication of these conditions. Polyhydramnios refers specifically to the excessive accumulation of amniotic fluid. Congenital anomalies may lead to polyhydramnios if they affect the fetus's ability to swallow and process amniotic fluid normally, but the presence of polyhydramnios alone does not confirm these conditions.

Choice B reason:

Elevated levels of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) in the amniotic fluid can be indicative of neural tube defects or other fetal abnormalities, but they are not a defining characteristic of polyhydramnios. Normal AFP levels in amniotic fluid at 15 to 21 weeks' gestation range from 10 to 150 ng/ml. Polyhydramnios is diagnosed based on the volume of amniotic fluid, not the AFP levels.

Choice C reason:

Carrying more than one fetus can lead to an increased amount of amniotic fluid, potentially resulting in polyhydramnios. However, the diagnosis of polyhydramnios itself does not imply a multiple gestation pregnancy. It simply indicates that there is more amniotic fluid than usual.

Choice D reason:

Polyhydramnios is defined as an excessive amount of amniotic fluid. It is typically diagnosed when the amniotic fluid index (AFI) exceeds 24 cm or the single deepest pocket (SDP) measures more than 8 cm. This condition can occur due to various reasons, including fetal anomalies, maternal diabetes, and other medical conditions.

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A 40-year-old client reports chronic lower back pain and stiffness. X-rays of the lumbar spine confirm the diagnosis of moderate to severe osteoarthritis. The nurse identifies which predisposing factor may have led to these degenerative changes?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A nurse formulates the problem of ineffective airway clearance for a client who has pneumonia. Which assessment data best supports this problem?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A nurse is caring for a client who was admitted to the maternity unit at 38 weeks of gestation and who is experiencing polyhydramnios. The nurse should understand that this diagnosis means which of the following?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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