Which medication should the nurse question for a client admitted with an exacerbation of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?
Ceftriaxone, with a white blood cell count of 16,000 u/L.
Zafirlukast, with an AST of 30 units/L and ALT of 20 units/L.
Theophylline, with a theophylline level of 21 mg/dL.
Prednisone, with a glucose level of 110 mg/dL.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A Reason
Ceftriaxone is an antibiotic that may be prescribed during COPD exacerbations to treat or prevent infection. A white blood cell count of 16,000 u/L indicates an elevated level, which could be a response to infection. Therefore, ceftriaxone would be appropriate, and there is no need to question this medication based on the white blood cell count.
Choice B Reason
Zafirlukast is a leukotriene receptor antagonist used for the prophylactic treatment of asthma, and it may be used off-label for COPD. AST and ALT levels are liver enzymes, and the values provided (AST of 30 units/L and ALT of 20 units/L) are within normal ranges. Thus, there is no immediate concern regarding liver function that would prompt the nurse to question the use of zafirlukast.
Choice C Reason
Theophylline is a bronchodilator used in the treatment of COPD. However, a theophylline level of 21 mg/dL is above the therapeutic range, which is generally considered to be 5-15 mg/dL. Levels above 20 mg/dL are associated with toxicity and can lead to serious side effects such as seizures or arrhythmias. Therefore, the nurse should question this medication due to the high theophylline level.
Choice D Reason
Prednisone is a corticosteroid that may be used to reduce inflammation during COPD exacerbations. A glucose level of 110 mg/dL is slightly elevated but may be expected as corticosteroids can increase blood sugar levels. This would not typically be a reason to question the use of prednisone unless the patient has poorly controlled diabetes or other specific contraindications.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A Reason
Monitoring for hypoglycemia at 1200 is not optimal because it is well past the peak action time of insulin aspart, which occurs approximately 45–90 minutes after administration. By noon, the insulin's effects are waning, and the risk of hypoglycemia is lower compared to the peak action period.
Choice B Reason
Monitoring at 1000 might still catch the tail end of the peak action time, but it is not the most likely time for hypoglycemia to occur. The nurse could miss the initial signs of hypoglycemia if monitoring starts two hours after administration.
Choice C Reason
0900 is the most appropriate time for the nurse to monitor for hypoglycemia. Insulin aspart has a rapid onset of action, peaking in about 45–90 minutes, and the effects last for 3–5 hours. Monitoring one hour after administration aligns with the start of the peak action time, when hypoglycemia is most likely to occur.
Choice D Reason
Monitoring at 1100 is less ideal because it is nearing the end of the peak action period. While there is still a risk for hypoglycemia, the highest risk would have been earlier, closer to the peak action time.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
A blood pressure of 98/60, while on the lower side, is not necessarily alarming post-surgery unless the patient shows symptoms of hypotension or if there is a significant drop from the patient's baseline blood pressure. It is important to monitor trends in blood pressure readings rather than a single isolated measurement.
Choice B Reason:
A urine output of 40 mL/hour can be considered within normal limits post-surgery, as the expected urine output is at least 0.5 mL/kg/hr. However, it should be monitored closely to ensure that it does not decrease further, which could indicate renal complications.
Choice C Reason:
Pain rated as 5 on a 0-10 scale indicates moderate pain, which is expected post-surgery. Pain management should be continued as prescribed, and the patient should be reassessed regularly to ensure that the pain does not escalate.
Choice D Reason:
The absence of a popliteal pulse is a critical finding that must be reported immediately. The popliteal artery provides blood flow to the lower leg, and its absence could indicate graft occlusion or other serious circulatory issues, which could lead to limb-threatening complications if not addressed promptly.
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