A 46-year-old female patient returns to the clinic with continued dysuria after being treated with trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole for 3 days. Which action will the nurse plan to take?
Remind the patient about the need to drink 1000 mL of fluids daily.
Obtain a midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing.
Suggest that the patient use acetaminophen (Tylenol) to relieve symptoms.
Tell the patient to take trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole for 3 days.
The Correct Answer is B
This is because the persistent dysuria suggests that the initial treatment was not effective, and there may be a possibility of a resistant organism. Obtaining a midstream urine specimen for culture and sensitivity testing will help identify the specific microorganism causing the infection and determine the most effective antibiotic to use. The nurse should also instruct the patient to continue to drink plenty of fluids, as this will help flush out the bacteria and relieve symptoms. The nurse may suggest the use of acetaminophen (Tylenol) to relieve discomfort, but this should not be the only action taken, as treating the underlying infection is crucial. The nurse should not tell the patient to take trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole for an additional three days, as the initial treatment was not effective, and a different course of treatment may be required based on the results of the urine culture and sensitivity testing.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The patient's vital signs suggest that she is experiencing hypotension, tachycardia, and possibly dehydration due to acute adrenal insufficiency. The highest priority nursing intervention for this patient is to provide isotonic fluids to restore intravascular volume and blood pressure. This will also help to correct any electrolyte imbalances that may be present. Administering furosemide (Lasix) or replacing potassium losses may be necessary interventions, but they are not the highest priority at this time. Restricting sodium would be contraindicated in this situation as the patient is hypotensive and needs fluids to increase intravascular volume.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Glycosylated hemoglobin (HbA1c) is a measure of the average blood glucose levels over the past 2-3 months. An HbA1c level of less than 7% is associated with a reduced risk of microvascular and macrovascular complications in patients with diabetes. This is a critical goal because uncontrolled blood glucose levels can lead to complications such as neuropathy, nephropathy, retinopathy, and cardiovascular disease.
While options a, c, and d are also important in the management of diabetes, they are not as critical as achieving glycemic control. Choosing a diet that distributes calories throughout the day can help regulate blood glucose levels and prevent hypoglycemia. Following a diet and exercise plan that results in weight loss can also help improve glycemic control and reduce the risk of complications. Understanding the reasons for eliminating simple sugars in the diet is important for overall diabetes education, but it is not the most important goal in the plan of care for this patient at this time.
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