A 6-year-old boy has been started on an extended-release form of methylphenidate hydrochloride for the treatment of attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD). During a follow-up visit, his mother tells the nurse that she has been giving the medication at bedtime so that it will be "in his system" when he goes to school the next morning. What is the nurse's appropriate evaluation of the mother's actions?
The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia.
The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption.
The medication should not be taken until he is at school.
She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately.
The Correct Answer is A
A. The last dose of medication should be given 4 to 6 hours before bedtime to diminish insomnia: Methylphenidate is a stimulant medication commonly used to treat ADHD.
Administering it at bedtime may interfere with sleep onset and lead to insomnia. It's important to follow the prescribed dosing schedule to optimize symptom control during waking hours while minimizing adverse effects on sleep.
B. The medication should be taken with meals for optimal absorption: While taking
methylphenidate with meals may help reduce gastrointestinal side effects, the timing of administration relative to bedtime is more relevant to address in this scenario.
C. The medication should not be taken until he is at school: Delaying medication until the child is at school may result in inadequate symptom control during the morning when ADHD
symptoms are often most problematic.
D. She is giving him the medication dosage appropriately: Administering methylphenidate at bedtime is not appropriate and may lead to insomnia rather than optimizing symptom control during the day.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Assessment of the patient's pain level: While pain assessment is important, the patient's lethargy and shallow respirations indicate a potential opioid overdose, which takes priority.
B. Close observation of signs of opioid tolerance: The patient's symptoms are indicative of opioid overdose, not tolerance.
C. Immediate intubation and artificial ventilation: While respiratory support may eventually be necessary if the patient's condition deteriorates further, administering naloxone to reverse the opioid effects is the initial priority.
D. Administration of naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse opioid overdose by blocking opioid receptors, which can rapidly restore normal respiratory function and
consciousness in patients experiencing opioid-induced respiratory depression.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Constricted pupils: Adrenergic agonist drugs typically cause pupil dilation (mydriasis), not constriction.
B. Increased heart rate: Adrenergic agonists stimulate the sympathetic nervous system, leading to increased heart rate (positive chronotropic effect) and increased cardiac contractility (positive
inotropic effect).
C. Bronchial constriction: Adrenergic agonists typically cause bronchodilation, not constriction.
D. Increased GI peristalsis: Adrenergic agonists usually inhibit GI motility, leading to decreased GI peristalsis and potentially constipation
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