A 60-year-old man has been told that he has benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He expresses that his friend just died from prostate cancer and that he is concerned about dying from cancer. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

"It would be very unusual for a man your age to have cancer of the prostate."

“We will treat you with chemotherapy so we can control the cancer."

"The swelling in your prostate is only temporary and will go away."

"The enlargement of your prostate is caused by hormonal changes, and not cancer."

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A.   While prostate cancer risk increases with age, it's not rare for a 60-year-old man to have prostate cancer. This response might provide false reassurance.
B.   Chemotherapy is not typically the primary treatment for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and doesn’t relate to the concerns raised by the client.
C.   BPH is a chronic condition characterized by non-cancerous prostate enlargement, not temporary swelling that goes away.
D.   BPH is commonly caused by hormonal changes and does not predispose a person to prostate cancer. It's important to differentiate between BPH and prostate cancer.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. African Americans typically have a higher bone density compared to Caucasians and tend to have a lower risk of osteoporosis.
B. Asian men also have a lower risk due to generally higher bone density than Caucasians.
C. Postmenopausal Caucasian women have a higher risk due to hormonal changes after menopause, leading to decreased bone density.
D. American Indians can have varying risks but are not typically considered a population with the highest risk for osteoporosis.

A. "A good time to examine your testicles is just before you take a shower." B. "If you notice an enlarged testicle or a painless lump, call your health care provider." C. "Perform a testicular examination at least once a week to detect the early stages of testicular cancer." D. "The testicle is egg-shaped and movable. It feels firm and has a lumpy consistency."

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Timing for testicular examination isn't as crucial as recognizing changes in the testicles. While showering might facilitate the exam, it's not the only appropriate time.
B. Noticing an enlargement or painless lump is a crucial sign that requires immediate medical attention for evaluation.
C. Performing a testicular examination once a week might not be necessary for most individuals. Monthly self-examination is often recommended.
D. Describing the testicle's normal characteristics is helpful, but recognizing changes such as lumps or enlargements is more critical for self-examination.

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A 60-year-old man has been told that he has benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He expresses that his friend just died from prostate cancer and that he is concerned about dying from cancer. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

The nurse is providing health promotion teaching to a group of clients. The nurse should include in her teaching which of the following populations has a greater risk factor for osteoporosis.

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

The nurse is describing how to perform a testicular self-examination to a client. Which of the following should be the appropriate statement by the nurse?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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