A 60-year-old man has been told that he has benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH). He expresses that his friend just died from prostate cancer and that he is concerned about dying from cancer. Which of the following is an appropriate response by the nurse?
"It would be very unusual for a man your age to have cancer of the prostate."
“We will treat you with chemotherapy so we can control the cancer."
"The swelling in your prostate is only temporary and will go away."
"The enlargement of your prostate is caused by hormonal changes, and not cancer."
The Correct Answer is D
A. While prostate cancer risk increases with age, it's not rare for a 60-year-old man to have prostate cancer. This response might provide false reassurance.
B. Chemotherapy is not typically the primary treatment for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and doesn’t relate to the concerns raised by the client.
C. BPH is a chronic condition characterized by non-cancerous prostate enlargement, not temporary swelling that goes away.
D. BPH is commonly caused by hormonal changes and does not predispose a person to prostate cancer. It's important to differentiate between BPH and prostate cancer.
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Related Questions
Correct Answer is ["B"]
Explanation
A. Stress can affect sexual performance, but it's not exclusively an internal factor. Stress can be caused by both internal and external factors.
B. Low testosterone levels are an internal factor that can significantly impact sexual performance in aging males. Testosterone decline is a natural part of aging and can affect libido and sexual function.
C. Substance use can affect sexual performance, but it's not solely an internal cause as it often involves external factors related to the intake of substances.
D. Lack of sleep affects overall health, but it can also be influenced by external factors and is not strictly an internal cause.
E. Chronic diseases such as diabetes, cardiovascular diseases, and others can have internal physiological effects that impact blood flow, nerve function, and overall health, contributing to declines in sexual performance later in life.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. While prostate cancer risk increases with age, it's not rare for a 60-year-old man to have prostate cancer. This response might provide false reassurance.
B. Chemotherapy is not typically the primary treatment for benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) and doesn’t relate to the concerns raised by the client.
C. BPH is a chronic condition characterized by non-cancerous prostate enlargement, not temporary swelling that goes away.
D. BPH is commonly caused by hormonal changes and does not predispose a person to prostate cancer. It's important to differentiate between BPH and prostate cancer.
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