A 62-year-old man states that his physician told him that he has an inguinal hernia. He asks the nurse to explain what a hernia is. How should the nurse respond?
Tell him not to worry and that most men his age develop hernias
Explain that a hernia is a loop of bowel protruding through a weak spot in the abdominal muscles
Explain that a hernia is often the result of prenatal growth abnormalities
Refer him to his physician for additional consultation because the physician made the initial diagnosis
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A reason: Telling the patient not to worry dismisses their concern and provides no educational value. Inguinal hernias, while common in older men, require explanation and monitoring, as they can lead to complications like incarceration, making this an inappropriate response.
Choice B reason: An inguinal hernia is a protrusion of bowel or tissue through a weak spot in the abdominal wall, typically in the inguinal canal. This accurate explanation addresses the patient’s question, describing the condition’s pathophysiology clearly, making it the correct response.
Choice C reason: Inguinal hernias are typically acquired due to abdominal wall weakness or increased intra-abdominal pressure, not prenatal growth abnormalities. Congenital hernias (e.g., indirect inguinal) are less common in adults, making this an inaccurate explanation for the patient’s condition.
Choice D reason: Referring the patient back to the physician avoids the nurse’s responsibility to educate. Nurses are equipped to explain diagnoses like hernias in simple terms, and deferring entirely does not address the patient’s immediate need for understanding, making this less optimal.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: Clubbing, characterized by bulbous nail bed enlargement, is associated with chronic hypoxemia from conditions like asthma or COPD. It results from long-term low oxygen levels, making it the expected finding in this patient with chronic respiratory issues.
Choice B reason: Onychomycosis is a fungal nail infection unrelated to hypoxemia or asthma. Clubbing is directly linked to chronic oxygen deficiency, so this is not the expected nail condition in this patient’s context.
Choice C reason: Spooning (koilonychia) is associated with iron deficiency anemia, not hypoxemia or asthma. Clubbing is the nail abnormality seen in chronic respiratory conditions, so this is incorrect for the patient’s condition.
Choice D reason: Paronychia is an infection around the nail, typically from trauma or bacteria, not hypoxemia. Clubbing is the hallmark nail change in chronic asthma with low oxygen, so this is not the expected finding.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: The human spinal column has 33 vertebrae: 7 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral (fused), and 4 coccygeal (fused). The 5 lumbar vertebrae, located in the lower back, support significant weight and allow flexibility, making this choice correct for the vertebral count.
Choice B reason: The cervical spine consists of 7 vertebrae, not 12, which are designed for mobility and support of the head. The incorrect count of 12 aligns with the thoracic vertebrae, making this choice scientifically inaccurate for the cervical region.
Choice C reason: The sacral region has 5 vertebrae, which fuse into the sacrum in adults, not 7. The sacrum forms part of the pelvis, providing stability. The incorrect count of 7 corresponds to the cervical vertebrae, making this choice incorrect.
Choice D reason: The thoracic spine comprises 12 vertebrae, not 5, which articulate with the ribs to form the thoracic cage. The incorrect count of 5 aligns with the lumbar or sacral vertebrae, rendering this choice inaccurate for the thoracic region.
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