A 78-kg patient in septic shock has a pulse rate of 120 beats/min with low central venous pressure and pulmonary artery wedge pressure. After initial fluid volume resuscitation, the patient's urine output has been 30 mL/hr for the past 3 hours. Which order by the health care provider should the nurse question?
Give hydrocortisone (Solu-Cortef) 100 mg IV.
Administer furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg IV.
Increase normal saline infusion to 250 ml/hr.
Use norepinephrine to keep systolic BP above 90 mm Hg.
The Correct Answer is B
B. Administering furosemide, a loop diuretic, to a patient in septic shock with low urine output could exacerbate hypovolemia and worsen organ perfusion. It could further reduce preload, exacerbating hypotension, and impairing cardiac output. Loop diuretics are typically contraindicated in hypovolemic shock.
A. Corticosteroids such as hydrocortisone can help improve vascular tone and responsiveness to vasopressors. Given the patient's clinical presentation and lack of response to initial fluid resuscitation, administering hydrocortisone is appropriate.
C. Increasing the fluid infusion rate can help restore intravascular volume and improve organ perfusion. However, caution should be exercised to avoid fluid overload and pulmonary edema.
D .Norepinephrine is a vasopressor commonly used to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure in septic shock. It helps maintain perfusion pressure to vital organs, thereby supporting organ function.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
C. This allows for the patient's condition to be re-evaluated, ensuring that they receive the necessary care and attention before being transferred.
A. Benzodiazepines can cause sedation, cognitive impairment, and delirium, which may worsen the patient's condition. Canceling the transfer without addressing the underlying cause of confusion may delay appropriate management.
B. Restraints can increase agitation, anxiety, and risk of injury, and they do not address the underlying cause of confusion. Restraints should only be considered as a last resort if all other measures to ensure patient safety have been exhausted.
D. This option is not appropriate because transferring the patient without addressing the new-onset confusion could compromise patient safety. It's essential to identify and manage the underlying cause of confusion before transferring the patient to another unit.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A The first intervention should be to ensure adequate oxygenation, as hypoxia can exacerbate shock. Therefore, providing oxygen at 100% via a non-rebreather mask is the most critical initial step. This intervention helps to maximize the amount of oxygen delivered to the patient's lungs and subsequently to the rest of the body, supporting vital organ function while further assessments and interventions are prepared.
B Continuous ECG monitoring allows for the assessment of the patient's heart rhythm, rate, and any signs of dysrhythmias or cardiac ischemia. This intervention is important for detecting any life- threatening arrhythmias, such as ventricular tachycardia or fibrillation, which may require immediate intervention. While ECG monitoring is important, it may not be the highest priority intervention.
C Drawing blood for type and crossmatch is important for preparing for potential blood transfusions if significant blood loss is suspected. However, this intervention may take some time to process, and immediate stabilization of the patient's condition is paramount.
D Large-bore IV catheters allow for rapid infusion of fluids to restore intravascular volume and improve tissue perfusion. This intervention is critical for stabilizing the patient's hemodynamic status and takes precedence in the management of shock. However, oxygenation should take priority.
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