The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure with an EF of 40%. The client has a BP of 170/67 with an HR of 60. He currently is in normal sinus rhythm and has an amber urine output of 45ml in the last 3 hours. Which medication would the nurse expect to give first?

Isosorbide PO

Nitroglycerin Drip

Dopamine drip

Normal Saline Bolus

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

D Normal saline bolus administration is indicated for hypovolemia or inadequate intravascular volume, which can lead to decreased cardiac output and hypotension. In this scenario, the client has an amber urine output of 45ml in the last 3 hours, indicating decreased urine output and potential hypovolemia. The elevated blood pressure (170/67 mmHg) suggests possible volume overload or fluid retention, but the decreased urine output raises concerns for inadequate intravascular volume. Therefore, administering a normal saline bolus may be the first priority to optimize intravascular volume and improve cardiac output.

A Isosorbide mononitrate is a vasodilator commonly used in the treatment of heart failure and angina. It helps reduce preload and afterload, thereby decreasing the workload on the heart. However, in this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated (170/67 mmHg), and there is no indication of acute decompensation or pulmonary congestion. Therefore, isosorbide PO may not be the first priority medication at this time.

B Nitroglycerin is a potent vasodilator commonly used to manage acute heart failure exacerbations and acute coronary syndromes. It helps reduce preload and afterload, improving cardiac output and relieving symptoms of heart failure. In this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated, but the heart rate is normal, and there are no signs of acute decompensation. Therefore, initiating a nitroglycerin drip may not be the first priority unless the client develops symptoms of acute decompensation or pulmonary congestion.

C Dopamine is a vasopressor medication that can be used to increase blood pressure and cardiac output in patients with hypotension or shock. However, in this scenario, the client's blood pressure is elevated (170/67 mmHg), and there is no evidence of hypotension. Therefore, initiating a dopamine drip may not be appropriate at this time and could potentially exacerbate hypertension.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

C. its use in hypovolemic shock is generally not appropriate because the primary treatment for hypovolemic shock is fluid resuscitation to address the volume loss.

A. Dopamine is often used in neurogenic shock to increase systemic vascular resistance and improve blood pressure. Therefore, dopamine is an appropriate choice for the management of hypotension due to neurogenic shock.

B. Dopamine is commonly used in septic shock to improve cardiac output and systemic vascular resistance. It helps to support blood pressure and perfusion in septic shock patients.

D. It is indicated for cardiogenic shock as it increases cardiac contractility.

A. Decreased brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). B. Elevated central venous pressure (CVP). C. Decreased specific gravity D. Increased pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP).

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

B. Right-sided heart failure leads to congestion of the systemic venous circulation, resulting in increased central venous pressure (CVP). Elevated CVP is a hallmark sign of right-sided heart failure and is often used clinically to assess right ventricular preload and volume status.

A. BNP is a hormone secreted by the heart in response to increased ventricular stretch and volume overload, and its levels are usually elevated in heart failure, including both left-sided and right-sided heart failure.

C. Specific gravity refers to the concentration of solutes in urine and is often used as a measure of urine concentration.

D. Pulmonary artery wedge pressure (PAWP) is a measure of left atrial pressure and left ventricular end- diastolic pressure. In right-sided heart failure, the primary hemodynamic abnormality is congestion of the systemic venous circulation, rather than elevated left-sided pressures.

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The nurse is caring for a client who has heart failure with an EF of 40%. The client has a BP of 170/67 with an HR of 60. He currently is in normal sinus rhythm and has an amber urine output of 45ml in the last 3 hours. Which medication would the nurse expect to give first?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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