A charge nurse is reviewing documentation in the medical record from a newly licensed nurse.
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The client has a history of major depressive disorder and alcohol use disorder. They have had previous hospitalization which has included detoxification. The client is inappropriate and is a huge fall risk. The provider has denied this RN's requests for physical or chemical restraints. Currently, the ICU and progressive care unit are full, and the client is being admitted to this medical unit. They appear 'medically stable. The client is alert, oriented to self and location. Denies pain. Sitting up in bed. The partner is at bedside and said that their spouse is always complaining or arguing
The client is inappropriate and is a huge fall risk
The provider has denied this RN's requests for physical or chemical restraints
They appear 'medically stable
The partner is at bedside and said that their spouse is always complaining or arguing
the ICU and progressive care unit are full
the client is being admitted to this medical unit
Denies pain. Sitting up in bed
The Correct Answer is ["A","B","C","D"]
The nurse's documentation of the client being "inappropriate" is vague and unprofessional. Additionally, using the term "huge fall risk" without a specific assessment or plan to mitigate the risk (e.g., implementing fall precautions) is not adequate documentation. Further, the nurse’s reliance on physical or chemical restraints without exploring alternative interventions suggests a need for education on restraint use and patient safety practices.
The nurse's notes reflect a subjective description of the client's behavior as 'inappropriate' and 'complaining or arguing,' which is not objective or professional. It is important for nursing documentation to remain objective and to describe observed behaviors rather than labeling them. The statement that the client is "medically stable" should be supported by objective data rather than subjective observation, and it is important to note that mental health stability is also a crucial aspect of overall health.
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Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Rationale:
A. A client who was administered erythromycin for acute glomerulonephritis and reports reddish-brown urinary output requires assessment for possible drug reaction or hematuria, but this may not be immediately life-threatening compared to hypoglycemia.
B. A client who was administered glipizide for type 2 diabetes mellitus and has a blood glucose of 68 mg/dL is at risk for hypoglycemia, which requires prompt assessment and intervention to prevent severe complications.
C. A client who was administered adalimumab for Crohn's disease, has a serum calcium level of 10 mg/dL, and reports a headache should be assessed, but the calcium level and headache are less urgent compared to immediate treatment needs for hypoglycemia.
D. A client who was administered acyclovir for cellulitis reports pain in the affected leg may require assessment for infection or medication side effects, but this is less critical than addressing hypoglycemia.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Rationale:
A. Verify the AP's educational preparation prior to delegating the task is unnecessary if the AP has been trained and is competent in the task.
B. Observe the AP as she obtains the vital signs of each client is not required for routine tasks unless there is a concern about performance.
C. Determine the time frame the AP should report the results is crucial for ensuring timely and accurate reporting, which is necessary for effective patient care.
D. Ask the AP to take the vital signs of the client returning from surgery first might not be appropriate without considering the urgency of all clients’ conditions.
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