A charge nurse is teaching a group of nurses about the antagonist action of medications. The nurse should include in the teaching that which of the following antagonist medications is used for benzodiazepines?
Protamine
Naloxone
Diphenhydramine
Flumazenil
The Correct Answer is D
A. Protamine: Protamine is used as an antidote for heparin, not for benzodiazepines.
B. Naloxone: Naloxone is an opioid antagonist used to reverse the effects of opioids, such as morphine or heroin. It does not antagonize the effects of benzodiazepines.
C. Diphenhydramine: Diphenhydramine is an antihistamine medication commonly used for allergy relief and as a sleep aid. It does not antagonize the effects of benzodiazepines.
D. Flumazenil: Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist. It is used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepine overdose or to rapidly reverse the sedative effects of benzodiazepines in cases such as anesthesia recovery. Therefore, it is the correct option for antagonizing benzodiazepines.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Avoid flossing the teeth to prevent gum irritation: There is no evidence to suggest that flossing the teeth increases the risk of gum irritation with phenytoin use. In fact, proper dental hygiene, including flossing, is essential to prevent gum disease, which can be exacerbated by the medication.
B. Alcohol increases the chance of phenytoin toxicity: Consumption of alcohol can increase the risk of phenytoin toxicity by enhancing its effects. Therefore, clients taking phenytoin should avoid alcohol consumption to prevent adverse effects and ensure the medication's efficacy.
C. Take an antacid with the medication if indigestion occurs: Phenytoin can interact with antacids, reducing its absorption and effectiveness. Therefore, clients should not take antacids concurrently with phenytoin unless directed by their healthcare provider.
D. Phenytoin turns urine blue: Phenytoin does not typically cause changes in urine color. This statement is incorrect and not relevant to the client's medication regimen.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. Akathisia: Akathisia is characterized by restlessness and an inability to sit still. While it can be a side effect of antipsychotic medications like haloperidol, it does not present with fever, hypertension, and muscle rigidity, as described in the scenario.
B. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS): NMS is a potentially life-threatening condition associated with antipsychotic medications like haloperidol. It is characterized by hyperthermia, autonomic dysfunction (e.g., hypertension), altered mental status, and severe muscle rigidity. The client's symptoms of fever, elevated blood pressure, and muscle rigidity are consistent with NMS.
C. Tardive dyskinesia: Tardive dyskinesia is a movement disorder characterized by involuntary, repetitive movements of the face, tongue, and other body parts. It is a long-term side effect of antipsychotic medications and typically develops after prolonged use, unlike the acute onset seen in the scenario.
D. Agranulocytosis: Agranulocytosis is a rare but serious side effect of antipsychotic medications, characterized by a severe reduction in white blood cell count, leading to an increased risk of infection. The symptoms described in the scenario are not consistent with agranulocytosis.
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