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A client arrives for her first prenatal appointment.

Exhibits

What is the correct way for the nurse to document the GTPAL for this client?

A.

G5 T2 P1 A1 L3

B.

G4 T2 P1 A1 L4

C.

G5 T1 P2 A1 L4

D.

G4 T1 P2 A1 L3

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

  • G: 4 pregnancies (2017 spontaneous abortion, 2018 twins with one demise, 2020 NSVD, and the current pregnancy)
  • T: 2 term births (2020 and 2022)
  • P: 1 preterm birth
  • A: 1 abortion/miscarriage (2017 spontaneous abortion)
  • L: 4 living children (twins from 2018 and the child born in 2020)


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Related Questions

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. "The most common manifestation of postpartum depression is harming the infant." This is incorrect; harming the infant is a severe complication but not the most common manifestation.
B. "It's common for clients who have postpartum depression to exhibit psychotic behavior." Psychotic behavior is a rare but serious complication of postpartum depression.
C. "Postpartum depression usually begins 48 hours after childbirth." Postpartum blues may start within this timeframe, but postpartum depression typically manifests later.
D. "Postpartum depression is more likely to occur in women who have a history of depression." This statement correctly identifies a significant risk factor for postpartum depression.

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. The elevated AFP means my baby may have Down Syndrome. AFP is not typically elevated in Down Syndrome; other tests like nuchal translucency or cell-free DNA are used for that.
B. The elevated AFP means my baby may have spina bifida. AFP screening is used to detect neural tube defects like spina bifida. An elevated AFP level suggests a higher risk for such conditions.
C. The elevated AFP means my baby has Down syndrome. This is incorrect; AFP is not a marker for Down Syndrome.
D. The elevated AFP means my baby has spina bifida. This is correct, but option B is a more precise statement of understanding.

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