A client arrives for her first prenatal appointment.
What is the correct way for the nurse to document the GTPAL for this client?
G5 T2 P1 A1 L3
G4 T2 P1 A1 L4
G5 T1 P2 A1 L4
G4 T1 P2 A1 L3
The Correct Answer is B
- G: 4 pregnancies (2017 spontaneous abortion, 2018 twins with one demise, 2020 NSVD, and the current pregnancy)
- T: 2 term births (2020 and 2022)
- P: 1 preterm birth
- A: 1 abortion/miscarriage (2017 spontaneous abortion)
- L: 4 living children (twins from 2018 and the child born in 2020)
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A. O negative blood type. This is significant for Rh incompatibility if the fetus is Rh-positive, but it is managed through routine prenatal care and does not require immediate intervention at 36 weeks.
B. Blood pressure 144/94 mmHg in left arm. This finding is concerning because it may indicate the development of preeclampsia, which requires immediate medical attention due to the potential risks to both the mother and fetus.
C. Positive rubella serum antibody titer. A positive titer indicates immunity to rubella, which is a good finding in pregnancy and not a concern.
D. Copious leukorrhea. This is common in late pregnancy and typically not a cause for concern unless it is accompanied by signs of infection or rupture of membranes.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. Dysmenorrhea that is unresponsive to NSAIDs. Endometriosis often causes severe pelvic pain that does not improve with NSAIDs, distinguishing it from typical menstrual cramps.
B. A history of pelvic inflammatory disease (PID). PID is not directly associated with endometriosis and typically presents differently.
C. Abdominal bloating starting several days before menses. While bloating can occur with endometriosis, it is not a definitive symptom for diagnosis.
D. An atypical Papanicolaou smear at her last clinic visit. An atypical Pap smear is more related to cervical abnormalities, not endometriosis.
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