A client arrives to the clinic with reports of progressive weakness in his lower extremities. Which of the following findings in the client's history is consistent with the client developing Guillain-Barre syndrome?
Facial tumor
Pregnancy
Puncture wound 3 weeks ago
Cytomegalovirus
The Correct Answer is D
Choice A Reason: A facial tumor is not related to Guillain-Barre syndrome, which is an autoimmune disorder that affects the peripheral nerves.
Choice B Reason: Pregnancy is not a risk factor for Guillain-Barre syndrome, although it can occur during or after pregnancy in rare cases.
Choice C Reason: A puncture wound 3 weeks ago is unlikely to cause Guillain-Barre syndrome, which usually follows a respiratory or gastrointestinal infection.
Choice D Reason: This is the correct answer because cytomegalovirus is one of the common infections that can trigger Guillain-Barre syndrome. It can cause inflammation and damage to the myelin sheath that covers the nerves.

Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason: Sweating and pallor are early signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, which is a condition where food moves too quickly from the stomach to the small intestine, causing rapid fluid shifts and hormonal changes. Sweating and pallor are caused by hypoglycemia, which occurs when the high concentration of food in the small intestine stimulates insulin secretion.
Choice B Reason: Abdominal cramping and pain are late signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, which occur about one to three hours after eating. Abdominal cramping and pain are caused by intestinal distension, spasms, and gas formation.
Choice C Reason: Double vision and chest pain are not signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, but may indicate other serious conditions, such as stroke or heart attack. Double vision and chest pain should be reported to the provider immediately.
Choice D Reason: Bradycardia and indigestion are not signs and symptoms of dumping syndrome, but may be related to other gastrointestinal disorders, such as gastritis or peptic ulcer disease. Bradycardia and indigestion should be evaluated by the provider for further diagnosis and treatment.

Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A reason: This is the correct answer because the Amsler grid test is performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The Amsler grid is a pattern of straight lines with a dot in the center. The client is asked to look at the dot and report any distortions or missing areas in the grid. This can indicate damage to the macula, which is the central part of the retina that provides sharp vision.
Choice B reason: This is incorrect because the Snellen chart test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The Snellen chart is a chart of letters of different sizes that are read from a distance. The client is asked to read the smallest line they can see clearly. This can indicate visual acuity or sharpness of vision, but not macular degeneration.
Choice C reason: This is incorrect because the intraocular pressure test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The intraocular pressure test measures the pressure inside the eye using a device called a tonometer. The client may feel a puff of air or a gentle touch on their eye. This can indicate glaucoma, which is a condition where increased pressure damages the optic nerve, but not macular degeneration.
Choice D reason: This is incorrect because the refraction test is not performed to diagnose macular degeneration. The refraction test measures how well the eye bends light rays using a device called a phoropter. The client looks through different lenses and reports which ones make their vision clearer. This can indicate refractive errors such as nearsightedness, farsightedness, or astigmatism, but not macular degeneration.
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