A client has a myocardial infarction in the left ventricle and develops crackles bilaterally: 3 pillow orthopnea; an S3 heart sound; and a cough with pink, frothy sputum. The nurse obtains a pulse oximetry reading of 88%. What do these signs and symptoms indicate for this client?
The development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
The development of left sided heart failure
The development of right-sided heart failure
The development of cor pulmonale
The Correct Answer is B
A. The development of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)
Explanation: The signs and symptoms described, including crackles, orthopnea, S3 heart sound, cough with pink, frothy sputum, and low pulse oximetry, are more indicative of heart failure than COPD.
B. The development of left-sided heart failure
Explanation: This is the correct answer. The signs and symptoms, such as crackles, orthopnea, and cough with pink, frothy sputum, are characteristic of left-sided heart failure. The S3 heart sound is often associated with increased ventricular filling pressures.
C. The development of right-sided heart failure
Explanation: The presented signs and symptoms are more consistent with left-sided heart failure. Right-sided heart failure is often associated with peripheral edema, hepatomegaly, and jugular venous distension.
D. The development of cor pulmonale
Explanation: Cor pulmonale is typically associated with right-sided heart failure due to chronic lung disease. The signs and symptoms described are more indicative of left-sided heart failure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. “I will need to stop smoking because the nicotine causes less blood to flow to my hands and feet.”
Explanation: This statement reflects an understanding of the association between smoking and reduced blood flow, particularly due to nicotine's vasoconstrictive effects.
B. “The older I get the higher my risk for peripheral arterial disease gets.”
Explanation: While age is a non-modifiable risk factor for PAD, it is not a statement indicating a change in behavior to address risk factors. It is correct information but doesn't involve a proactive approach to risk reduction.
C. “Since my family is from Italy, I have a higher risk of developing peripheral arterial disease.”
Explanation: Family history is a non-modifiable risk factor, and the statement correctly identifies this risk factor. However, it doesn't address modifiable factors or actions to reduce risk.
D. “I will need to increase the amount of green leafy vegetables I eat to lower my cholesterol levels.”
Explanation: This statement demonstrates an understanding of a dietary modification to lower cholesterol levels, which is a positive step toward reducing a modifiable risk factor for PAD.
Correct Answer is ["4"]
Explanation
Warfarin (Coumadin) is an anticoagulant medication that prevents blood clots from forming or growing larger. It is prescribed for clients who have atrial fibrillation, deep vein thrombosis, pulmonary embolism, or artificial heart valves.
The physician orders warfarin 10 mg PO to be administered to a client at 1800 today. The pharmacy only has 2.5 mg tablets available. To calculate the number of tablets that the nurse will administer, the nurse will divide the ordered dose by the available dose. The formula is:
Number of tablets = Ordered dose / Available dose
Number of tablets = 10 mg / 2.5 mg
Number of tablets = 4
Therefore, the nurse will administer 4 tablets of warfarin 2.5 mg PO to the client at 1800 today
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