A client has been admitted to a psychiatric mental health facility in a manic state. The client's spouse accompanies the client to the facility and informs the nurse that the client has been displaying manic symptoms for the past 2 weeks. The spouse reports that the client has not slept for the past 2 days, and that the client has not eaten anything for at least 3 days.
Which would be the priority nursing diagnosis for this client?
Ineffective health maintenance
Risk for other-directed violence
Risk for imbalanced nutrition
Risk for suicide
The Correct Answer is C
A) Incorrect. While the client's sleep disturbance and lack of selfcare may contribute to
ineffective health maintenance, the more immediate concern is addressing the risk of imbalanced nutrition.
B) Incorrect. While clients in a manic state may exhibit hyperactivity and impulsivity, there is no indication in the scenario that the client poses an immediate risk for other-directed violence.
C) Correct. The client's reported lack of sleep and refusal to eat for an extended period raises concerns about nutritional deficits and dehydration. This is the most immediate and pressing issue to address.
D) Incorrect. While the client's manic state may increase the risk of impulsive behavior, there is no specific indication in the scenario that the client is at immediate risk for suicide.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. "He may begin to try to cover recognition of his memory loss by creating events." As
dementia progresses, individuals may experience confabulation, which involves creating false memories to compensate for memory loss. This is a common symptom seen in the middle stages of dementia.
B. "He may have difficulty in a motor skill such as walking." While motor skills may be affected in the later stages of dementia, it is not typically one of the early signs.
C. "The inability to communicate with speech comes immediately after the early signs." This statement is not accurate. Communication difficulties may occur in later stages, but it is not an immediate progression from early signs.
D. "He may not recognize you and other people who have been in his life." This symptom, known as agnosia, may occur in later stages of dementia, but it is not one of the early signs.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A) Incorrect. Reverse isolation is not indicated in this situation. The client's symptoms are likely due to a side effect of the medication, not an infectious process.
B) Incorrect. While it may be necessary to withhold the next dose of medication, the client's symptoms require more immediate attention.
C) Incorrect. The client's symptoms are indicative of a serious adverse reaction, and dietary changes would not address the issue.
D) Correct. The client's symptoms, including severe muscle stiffness, difficulty swallowing, drooling, diaphoresis, and elevated vital signs, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone.
The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately for further guidance and intervention.
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