A nurse is preparing to administer fluoxetine 80 mg PO daily. Available is fluoxetine 40 mg/5mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

(Write the number only, do not include the label. Record the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero)

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is ["10"]

Dose (mL) = Desired dose (mg) / Available dose (mg/mL) Plugging in the values from the question, we get:
Dose (mL) = 80 mg / (40 mg / 5 mL) Simplifying the fraction, we get:
Dose (mL) = 80 mg / 8 mg/mL Dividing both sides by 8, we get:
Dose (mL) = 10 mL
Therefore, the nurse should administer 10 mL of fluoxetine per dose.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Orienting the client to the unit While orientation is important, the client's prolonged
immobility and stupor necessitate a physical assessment first to ensure there are no underlying medical issues contributing to this state.

B. Reinforcing reality with the client The client's catatonic state may make it difficult to effectively communicate or engage in reality orientation at this point. Addressing potential physical issues is the initial priority.

C. Establishing a nonthreatening relationship Building a therapeutic relationship is crucial, but given the client's current state, assessing for physical problems takes precedence.

D. Assessing the client for physical problems The client's prolonged catatonic state requires an
immediate physical assessment to rule out any underlying medical conditions contributing to his condition.

A. Institute reverse isolation B. Withhold the next dose of medication C. Begin high protein, high cholesterol diet D. Notify health care provider stat

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Reverse isolation is not indicated in this situation. The client's symptoms are likely due to a side effect of the medication, not an infectious process.

B) Incorrect. While it may be necessary to withhold the next dose of medication, the client's symptoms require more immediate attention.

C) Incorrect. The client's symptoms are indicative of a serious adverse reaction, and dietary changes would not address the issue.

D) Correct. The client's symptoms, including severe muscle stiffness, difficulty swallowing, drooling, diaphoresis, and elevated vital signs, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone.
The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately for further guidance and intervention.

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A nurse is preparing to administer fluoxetine 80 mg PO daily. Available is fluoxetine 40 mg/5mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose? (Write the number only, do not include the label. Record the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero)

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

A 28-year old male admitted with catatonic schizophrenia has been mute and motionless for several days while at home prior to admission. He still appears stuporous in the hospital. Which nursing intervention would be an initial priority?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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A nurse is preparing to administer fluoxetine 80 mg PO daily. Available is fluoxetine 40 mg/5mL. How many mL should the nurse administer per dose?

(Write the number only, do not include the label. Record the answer to the nearest whole number. Do not use a trailing zero)