A client has been diagnosed with an ulcer and will begin taking sucralfate. What information should the nurse include when providing education to the client?
This medication neutralizes gastric acid in the stomach by direct contact.*
"You should take this medication after meals to help limit gastric acid secretion!
"This medication decreases gastric acid production by blocking histamine 2 receptors.
"You should take this medication 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals and at bedtime"
The Correct Answer is D
A) This medication neutralizes gastric acid in the stomach by direct contact: Sucralfate does not neutralize gastric acid. Instead, it works by forming a protective barrier over the ulcer, which helps protect it from further damage by stomach acid and promotes healing. Sucralfate is a mucosal protectant, not an acid-neutralizing agent.
B) "You should take this medication after meals to help limit gastric acid secretion": Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, typically 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals, to allow it to form an effective protective barrier over the ulcer. Taking it after meals would interfere with its action and effectiveness.
C) "This medication decreases gastric acid production by blocking histamine 2 receptors": Sucralfate does not work by blocking histamine 2 receptors. Histamine 2 receptor antagonists, such as ranitidine, work by reducing gastric acid secretion. Sucralfate works by coating and protecting the ulcer rather than by reducing acid production.
D) "You should take this medication 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals and at bedtime": Sucralfate should be taken on an empty stomach, typically 30 minutes to 1 hour before meals and at bedtime. This timing ensures that the medication can form an effective barrier over the ulcer before food intake and helps maximize its healing properties.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
A) Cut the 50 mcg/hr patch in half to obtain 25 mcg/hr dosing: Cutting a fentanyl patch in half is not recommended because it can lead to inconsistent dosing. The patches are designed to release medication at a controlled rate, and cutting them could cause the medication to be released too quickly or unevenly, which could result in overdose or insufficient relief of pain. It’s essential to follow the manufacturer's guidelines and avoid altering the patch.
B) Ask pharmacy to send a 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch: The best course of action is to ask the pharmacy to send the correct 25 mcg/hr transdermal patch. This ensures that the patient receives the prescribed dose in the most accurate and safe manner. The 25 mcg/hr patch is formulated to deliver the correct amount of medication, and it will avoid any risk associated with altering the patch.
C) Contact the healthcare provider and request to increase the dose to 50 mcg/hr: Requesting an increase in the dose is premature without a clear justification from the healthcare provider. The healthcare provider decreased the dose to 25 mcg/hr for a reason, possibly due to side effects, effectiveness, or other clinical factors. Altering the prescribed dose without a proper review would be inappropriate. The nurse should follow the current prescribed dose and resolve the issue by requesting the correct patch from the pharmacy.
D) Remove the previous patch and apply the 50 mcg/hr patch in a different location: Switching to the 50 mcg/hr patch without approval could lead to administering an incorrect dose of fentanyl, which can increase the risk of overdose or severe side effects like respiratory depression. The nurse should adhere to the prescribed 25 mcg/hr dose and request the correct patch from the pharmacy rather than substituting with a higher dose patch.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A) The client will remain free from visible bleeding, bruising, and signs of internal bleeding (tachycardia and hypotension) during this shift: This is the most appropriate outcome for the "Risk for bleeding" nursing diagnosis. Since both aspirin and warfarin are anticoagulants, they increase the client's risk of bleeding. The priority is to monitor for and prevent any signs of visible bleeding, bruising, or more serious internal bleeding, which could manifest as tachycardia or hypotension. This outcome directly addresses the client's safety by focusing on detecting and preventing bleeding complications.
B) The client will verbalize understanding of dietary restrictions while on warfarin and provide examples of foods that contain vitamin K during this shift: While this is an important goal for clients on warfarin (because vitamin K can interfere with the effectiveness of warfarin), it is not the most immediate concern in the context of the "Risk for bleeding" diagnosis. Dietary restrictions should be discussed but are not as time-sensitive or directly related to the prevention of bleeding in the short term, especially during this shift.
C) The client will state their pain level is less than 4 on a 0-10 pain scale during aspirin therapy: While managing pain is important, this outcome does not directly address the risk for bleeding associated with both aspirin and warfarin therapy. The priority nursing concern here is preventing bleeding, not pain management during aspirin therapy.
D) The client will remain free from any signs and symptoms of deep vein thrombosis (DVT): While preventing DVT is important for patients on anticoagulant therapy, the focus of this nursing diagnosis is on the risk of bleeding, not thrombosis. Therefore, this outcome is not as relevant to the immediate concerns related to the prescribed medications (aspirin and warfarin).
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