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A client has been treated for low back pain which radiates down the posterior right leg. The client now has a new onset of urinary and bowel incontinence and weakness in both lower extremities. What is the nurse's first action?

Obtain a walker for ambulation

Apply a diaper

Insert a Foley catheter

Notify the physician

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is D

A. Obtaining a walker does not address the acute neurological symptoms.

B. Applying a diaper addresses the incontinence but not the underlying cause.

C. Inserting a Foley catheter manages urinary incontinence but delays necessary evaluation.

D. Notifying the physician is critical as these symptoms suggest cauda equina syndrome, a surgical emergency.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A. Scratching around pin sites is more indicative of skin irritation or infection, not compartment syndrome.

B. Accumulation of flaky skin is generally unrelated to compartment syndrome and might be a sign of poor circulation or prolonged immobility.

C. Dry serosanguineous drainage is common after surgery and would not specifically indicate compartment syndrome.

D. Compartment syndrome is a serious condition where increased pressure within a muscle compartment can lead to ischemia and tissue damage. Pain, particularly pain that is out of proportion to the injury or pain when the limb is at rest, is a classic sign.

A. Propranolol 10 mg PO twice a day B. Morphine sulfate 10 mg IM q 4 hours prn pain C. Metoprolol 20 mg PO three times a day D. Cephalexin 500 mg PO q 4 hours

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Propranolol 10 mg PO twice a day would not fit this schedule of three doses.

B. Morphine sulfate is ordered every 4 hours as needed, not on a fixed schedule.

C. Metoprolol is scheduled three times a day (1000, 1400, 1800), fitting the described schedule.

D. Cephalexin 500 mg q 4 hours does not match the schedule as it requires dosing every 4 hours, not at the specified times.

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A client has been treated for low back pain which radiates down the posterior right leg. The client now has a new onset of urinary and bowel incontinence and weakness in both lower extremities. What is the nurse's first action?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

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