A client has hypocalcemia caused by a parathyroid hormone deficiency. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
Calcitonin (Fortical).
Calcium (PO or via IVPB).
Vitamin B12.
Vitamin D3 (Calcitriol).
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Calcitonin (Fortical) is a hormone that lowers blood calcium levels. It is not indicated for the treatment of hypocalcemia caused by parathyroid hormone deficiency. In fact, it could worsen the condition by further reducing calcium levels.
Calcitonin is primarily used to treat hypercalcemia (high calcium levels) and osteoporosis.
It works by inhibiting osteoclast activity, which reduces bone resorption and calcium release into the bloodstream.
Choice B rationale:
Calcium is the essential mineral for treating hypocalcemia. It directly replenishes calcium levels in the blood.
Calcium can be administered orally (PO) or intravenously (IVPB), depending on the severity of the hypocalcemia and the patient's condition.
Oral calcium is often preferred for mild to moderate hypocalcemia, while IV calcium is typically used for severe hypocalcemia or when rapid correction is necessary.
Calcium supplements are available in various forms, including calcium carbonate, calcium citrate, and calcium gluconate. The dosage of calcium will be individualized based on the patient's serum calcium levels and clinical response.
Choice C rationale:
Vitamin B12 is not directly involved in calcium regulation. It is essential for red blood cell production and nerve function. While vitamin B12 deficiency can sometimes be associated with hypocalcemia, it is not a primary treatment for this condition. Choice D rationale:
Vitamin D3 (Calcitriol) is a hormone that aids in calcium absorption from the intestines. It is often used in conjunction with calcium supplements to treat hypocalcemia.
However, vitamin D3 alone is not sufficient to treat hypocalcemia caused by parathyroid hormone deficiency. Parathyroid hormone is essential for activating vitamin D3 in the kidneys, so its deficiency limits the effectiveness of vitamin D3.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Erythromycin ointment does not have moisturizing properties. Its primary function is to act as an antibiotic to prevent bacterial infections.
While it may have a slightly lubricating effect due to its ointment base, this is not its intended purpose.
If moisture is the primary goal, artificial tears or other ophthalmic lubricants would be more appropriate choices.
Choice B rationale:
Chemical conjunctivitis is typically caused by irritants such as chlorine, smoke, or chemicals, not bacteria. Erythromycin is not effective in preventing or treating chemical conjunctivitis.
Treatment for chemical conjunctivitis usually involves flushing the eyes with saline or water and applying cool compresses, as well as potentially using topical antihistamines or corticosteroids to reduce inflammation.
Choice D rationale:
Erythromycin ointment is not typically used to treat active eye infections in newborns.
While it can be used for this purpose in certain cases, it is more commonly used as a prophylactic measure to prevent infections from developing in the first place.
If a newborn has a suspected eye infection, a healthcare provider would likely collect a sample of discharge for testing and culture to determine the specific causative organism and select the most appropriate antibiotic treatment.
Choice C rationale:
The primary purpose of applying erythromycin ointment to a newborn's eyes is to prevent bacterial eye infections, specifically ophthalmia neonatorum.
Ophthalmia neonatorum is a serious condition that can lead to vision loss if not treated promptly.
It is most commonly caused by the bacteria Neisseria gonorrhoeae and Chlamydia trachomatis, which can be transmitted to the newborn during childbirth if the mother is infected.
Erythromycin ointment is effective in preventing these infections by killing or inhibiting the growth of these bacteria. It is typically applied to the newborn's eyes within 1 hour of birth as a standard practice in many countries.
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Glucagon directly addresses the underlying issue of severe hypoglycemia: In a patient with Type 1 diabetes mellitus, a blood glucose level of 40 mg/dL signifies a critical condition known as severe hypoglycemia. This condition occurs when blood sugar levels drop dangerously low, depriving the brain and other vital organs of glucose, their primary source of energy. Glucagon, a hormone that acts opposite to insulin, is the most effective and rapid treatment for severe hypoglycemia. It works by stimulating the liver to release stored glucose into the bloodstream, quickly raising blood sugar levels and restoring normal brain function.
Rationale for other choices:
Choice B: Give orange juice: While orange juice contains carbohydrates that can raise blood sugar, it is not ideal for treating severe hypoglycemia due to its slower absorption rate compared to glucagon. In an unconscious patient, there's also a risk of aspiration if given orally.
Choice C: Perform CPR: CPR is not indicated in this scenario as the patient has a pulse. CPR is a lifesaving technique that is only used when a person's heart has stopped beating.
Choice D: Give insulin: Insulin, which lowers blood glucose, would be contraindicated in this situation as the patient is already experiencing severe hypoglycemia. Administering insulin would further decrease blood sugar levels, worsening the patient's condition.
Key points to remember:
Severe hypoglycemia is a medical emergency that requires prompt treatment with glucagon.
Glucagon is the only medication that can effectively and quickly raise blood glucose levels in severe hypoglycemia. It's crucial to administer glucagon as soon as possible to prevent irreversible brain damage or even death.
Healthcare professionals should be proficient in recognizing the signs and symptoms of severe hypoglycemia and administering glucagon appropriately.
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