A client has hypocalcemia caused by a parathyroid hormone deficiency. Which medication should the nurse anticipate administering to this client?
Calcitonin (Fortical).
Calcium (PO or via IVPB).
Vitamin B12.
Vitamin D3 (Calcitriol).
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Calcitonin (Fortical) is a hormone that lowers blood calcium levels. It is not indicated for the treatment of hypocalcemia caused by parathyroid hormone deficiency. In fact, it could worsen the condition by further reducing calcium levels.
Calcitonin is primarily used to treat hypercalcemia (high calcium levels) and osteoporosis.
It works by inhibiting osteoclast activity, which reduces bone resorption and calcium release into the bloodstream.
Choice B rationale:
Calcium is the essential mineral for treating hypocalcemia. It directly replenishes calcium levels in the blood.
Calcium can be administered orally (PO) or intravenously (IVPB), depending on the severity of the hypocalcemia and the patient's condition.
Oral calcium is often preferred for mild to moderate hypocalcemia, while IV calcium is typically used for severe hypocalcemia or when rapid correction is necessary.
Calcium supplements are available in various forms, including calcium carbonate, calcium citrate, and calcium gluconate. The dosage of calcium will be individualized based on the patient's serum calcium levels and clinical response.
Choice C rationale:
Vitamin B12 is not directly involved in calcium regulation. It is essential for red blood cell production and nerve function. While vitamin B12 deficiency can sometimes be associated with hypocalcemia, it is not a primary treatment for this condition. Choice D rationale:
Vitamin D3 (Calcitriol) is a hormone that aids in calcium absorption from the intestines. It is often used in conjunction with calcium supplements to treat hypocalcemia.
However, vitamin D3 alone is not sufficient to treat hypocalcemia caused by parathyroid hormone deficiency. Parathyroid hormone is essential for activating vitamin D3 in the kidneys, so its deficiency limits the effectiveness of vitamin D3.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Norepinephrine is a potent vasoconstrictor, meaning it narrows blood vessels. It primarily acts on arteries, but it can also constrict veins to a lesser extent.
Its primary actions are to increase systemic vascular resistance and blood pressure.
It is often used in conditions such as shock to raise blood pressure and improve perfusion to vital organs.
It is not a vasodilator and would not be appropriate for a patient requiring dilation of both arteries and veins.
Choice B rationale:
Nitroglycerin is a vasodilator that primarily acts on veins. It relaxes the smooth muscle in the walls of veins, which allows them to dilate and hold more blood.
This reduces the amount of blood returning to the heart, which in turn lowers preload and reduces cardiac workload.
Nitroglycerin is often used to treat angina pectoris, a condition characterized by chest pain due to insufficient blood flow to the heart.
While it can also have some vasodilatory effects on arteries, its primary action is on veins.
Choice C rationale:
Nitroprusside sodium (Nitropress) is a potent vasodilator that acts on both arteries and veins. It directly relaxes smooth muscle in the blood vessel walls, leading to dilation.
It is a very powerful vasodilator and can rapidly lower blood pressure.
It is often used in hypertensive emergencies to quickly reduce blood pressure and improve cardiac function.
It is also used in conditions such as congestive heart failure and acute aortic dissection to reduce afterload and improve cardiac output.
Choice D rationale:
Lidocaine is a local anesthetic agent that is primarily used to block nerve conduction. It does not have any direct vasodilatory effects.
It is sometimes used in the treatment of cardiac arrhythmias, but its mechanism of action in this setting is not related to vasodilation.
Correct Answer is ["A","C"]
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Insulin glargine (Lantus) is a long-acting insulin analog that is designed to provide a steady, basal level of insulin throughout the day.
It has a duration of action of approximately 24 hours, so it is typically administered once daily at bedtime.
This helps to control blood glucose levels overnight and during the early morning hours, when the risk of hypoglycemia is highest.
Key characteristics of Insulin Glargine (Lantus):
Onset: 1-2 hours
Peak: No pronounced peak Duration: Approximately 24 hours
Administration: Once daily at bedtime
Choice B rationale:
Lispro (Humalog) is a rapid-acting insulin analog that is designed to be taken with meals to help control blood glucose spikes after eating.
It has a onset of action of approximately 15 minutes and a duration of action of 2-4 hours.
Because of its rapid onset and short duration of action, lispro is not typically used as a basal insulin. Key characteristics of Lispro (Humalog):
Onset: 15 minutes
Peak: 30-90 minutes
Duration: 2-4 hours
Administration: With meals
Choice C rationale:
Insulin detemir (Levemir) is another long-acting insulin analog that is similar to insulin glargine in terms of its duration of action.
It is typically administered once daily at bedtime to provide basal insulin coverage. Key characteristics of Insulin Detemir (Levemir):
Onset: 1-2 hours
Peak: No pronounced peak
Duration: Approximately 18-24 hours Administration: Once daily at bedtime Question 23.
The nurse receives an order for insulin: NPH (Humulin NPH) 10 units to be administered intravenously daily at 7:00am.
What action should the nurse take?
A. Administer the dose but ensure that if mixed with another Humulin-R insulin, to draw the regular insulin up first.
B. Give the drug subcutaneously rather than IV
C. Review the insulin order with the prescriber and pharmacy.
D. Administer the insulin ordered mixed in 50 ML of 0.9%NS IV Piggyback (not to infuse faster than 1/2 hour or 30 minutes).
The correct answer is C. Review the insulin order with the prescriber and pharmacy.
Rationale for Choice A:
Intravenous administration of NPH insulin is not recommended. It is an intermediate-acting insulin that is designed to be absorbed slowly from the subcutaneous tissue. IV administration can lead to rapid and unpredictable changes in blood glucose levels, which can be dangerous.
Mixing NPH insulin with regular insulin does not change the route of administration. Both insulins should still be given subcutaneously.
Rationale for Choice B:
Subcutaneous administration of NPH insulin is the correct route. This allows for slow and steady absorption of the insulin, which helps to prevent blood glucose fluctuations.
However, the nurse should still clarify the order with the prescriber and pharmacy. This is because IV insulin orders are unusual and may be a mistake.
Rationale for Choice D:
Adding NPH insulin to a 50 mL IV piggyback is not a safe practice. This would dilute the insulin and make it even more difficult to control the rate of infusion.
IV insulin infusions are typically administered using a dedicated insulin pump. This allows for precise control of the infusion rate and helps to prevent hypoglycemia.
Rationale for Choice C:
Reviewing the insulin order with the prescriber and pharmacy is the safest course of action. This will help to ensure that the order is correct and that the insulin is administered safely.
The prescriber may have meant to order regular insulin instead of NPH insulin. Regular insulin can be given intravenously, but it requires careful monitoring of blood glucose levels.
The pharmacy can also double-check the order and ensure that the correct insulin is dispensed.
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