A client has just experienced a 90-second tonic-clonic seizure and has the following arterial blood gas results: pH 7.12, HCO3 22 mEq/L, PaCO2 55 mmHg, PaO2 60 mmHg. Which intervention is the most appropriate?
Apply a paper bag over the clients nose and mouth.
Administer 50 mL of 20% glucose and 20 units of regular insulin.
Administer 50 mL of sodium bicarbonate intravenously.
Apply oxygen by mask or nasal cannula.
The Correct Answer is D
A. Appling a paper bag over the client's nose and mouth is used for hyperventilation or respiratory alkalosis, not for respiratory acidosis. In this case, it would worsen the client’s condition by increasing CO2 retention.
B. Administering 50 mL of 20% glucose and 20 units of regular insulin is appropriate for hyperkalemia or diabetic ketoacidosis, not respiratory acidosis following a seizure.
C. Administering 50 mL of sodium bicarbonate intravenously is used for severe metabolic acidosis. This client’s acidosis is primarily respiratory in origin, making this choice inappropriate.
D. Applying oxygen by mask or nasal cannula helps correct the low oxygen levels and supports respiration post-seizure.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. A 19-year-old client with menorrhagia who has been using superabsorbent tampons and has fever with weakness: This is the correct choice. Fever and weakness in the context of menorrhagia suggest a possible infection (e.g., toxic shock syndrome) or severe blood loss, which requires immediate evaluation and intervention.
B. A 35-year-old client with heavy spotting after having a progestin-containing IUD (Mirena) inserted a month ago: Spotting after IUD insertion is common and does not suggest an immediate threat to the client’s health.
C. A 39-year-old client who is complaining of 4/10 pain after an abdominal hysterectomy: Mild pain after a hysterectomy is expected and not an emergency.
D. A 42-year-old client with secondary amenorrhea who says that her last menstrual cycle was 3 months ago: While secondary amenorrhea requires evaluation, it is not as urgent as a client with signs of possible infection or blood loss.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
A. LDL of 160 mg/dL is elevated, which is a risk factor for atherosclerosis.
B. Total cholesterol of 280 mg/dL is above the recommended level, increasing the risk of atherosclerosis.
C. Serum albumin is within the normal range and does not indicate atherosclerosis risk.
D. HDL cholesterol at 50 mg/dL is considered within a normal protective range and is not indicative of atherosclerosis risk.
E. Triglycerides of 200 mg/dL are also elevated, contributing to the risk for atherosclerosis.
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