A client in her first trimester of pregnancy is scheduled for an ultrasound.
Which of the following would not be a reason for an ultrasound at this stage?
Determine fetal position.
Detect multiple gestations.
Detect maternal abnormalities.
Confirm pregnancy.
The Correct Answer is A
Choice A rationale:
Fetal position during the first trimester is not definitively determined through ultrasound. While the gestational sac and fetal pole can be visualized, the fetus is still quite small and has ample space to move within the amniotic sac. This makes it challenging to accurately ascertain its position.
Reliable assessment of fetal position typically occurs later in pregnancy, usually between 34 and 36 weeks gestation. At this point, the fetus is larger and less mobile, allowing for a clearer assessment of its position through ultrasound.
The early determination of fetal position in the first trimester is not a primary goal of ultrasound. It is more focused on establishing pregnancy viability, gestational age, and detecting any potential abnormalities.
Choice B rationale:
Ultrasound in the first trimester can reliably detect multiple gestations. It can visualize the presence of multiple gestational sacs or fetal poles, clearly indicating whether a woman is carrying twins, triplets, or more.
Early identification of multiple gestations is crucial for optimal pregnancy management. It allows healthcare providers to tailor prenatal care, monitor for potential complications associated with multiple pregnancies, and plan for appropriate delivery. Choice C rationale:
Ultrasound in the first trimester can assist in detecting certain maternal abnormalities that could impact pregnancy. These may include:
Uterine abnormalities, such as fibroids or structural defects
Ovarian cysts
Ectopic pregnancies (where the embryo implants outside the uterus)
Gestational trophoblastic disease (abnormal growth of tissue inside the uterus)
Early identification of these maternal abnormalities allows for timely intervention and management, ensuring the best possible outcomes for both mother and fetus.
Choice D rationale:
Confirming pregnancy is a primary reason for ultrasound in the first trimester. It can visualize the gestational sac, which contains the developing embryo and confirms the presence of a pregnancy.
Ultrasound can also detect the fetal heartbeat, which typically becomes visible between 6 and 8 weeks gestation. This provides further confirmation of a viable pregnancy.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is C. Only one copy of the variant gene is needed for expression of the disease.
Choice A rationale:
Huntington's disease (HD) is not typically diagnosed in childhood. While symptoms can sometimes manifest in adolescence or early adulthood, the average age of onset is between 30 and 50 years old.
Early-onset HD, which occurs before the age of 20, is much rarer and accounts for only about 5-10% of cases.
It's crucial to convey accurate information about the typical age of onset to avoid unnecessary anxiety and unwarranted testing in children.
Choice B rationale:
The statement "If you are a carrier, there is a 25% chance your child will inherit the gene" is not entirely accurate for autosomal dominant disorders like HD.
If a parent has HD, each child has a 50% chance of inheriting the mutated gene, not 25%. This is because the parent with HD has one mutated copy of the gene and one normal copy.
During conception, each child randomly receives one copy of the gene from each parent. Therefore, there's a 50% chance the child will receive the mutated copy and a 50% chance they'll receive the normal copy.
Choice D rationale:
Referral to a genetic counselor is essential for all individuals with a family history of HD, regardless of their carrier status.
Genetic counselors can provide comprehensive information about HD, including: Inheritance patterns
Risk assessment
Testing options
Reproductive options
Support resources
Psychosocial counseling
They can assist individuals in making informed decisions about testing, family planning, and management of the condition.
Choice C is the correct answer because:
HD is indeed an autosomal dominant disorder, meaning that only one copy of the mutated gene is needed for an individual to develop the disease.
This contrasts with autosomal recessive disorders, which require two copies of the mutated gene (one from each parent) for the disease to manifest.
Understanding the pattern of inheritance is crucial for accurate risk assessment and genetic counseling.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Urine output (UO) does not completely stop during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. While it is significantly reduced, some urine production still occurs. Complete cessation of urine output is known as anuria, which is a more severe condition and a medical emergency.
Anuria may occur in the most severe cases of acute renal failure, but it is not the defining characteristic of the oliguric phase.
It's crucial to distinguish between oliguria and anuria, as their management approaches differ significantly.
Choice B rationale:
During the oliguric phase of acute renal failure, urine output (UO) is less than 400 mL/24 hours. This is the defining characteristic of this phase.
The decrease in urine output is due to damage to the kidneys' filtering units, known as nephrons. As a result, the kidneys are unable to filter waste products and excess fluids effectively from the blood, leading to their accumulation in the body.
This reduced urine output can lead to various complications, including fluid overload, electrolyte imbalances, and a buildup of waste products in the blood (uremia).
Choice C rationale:
Urine output (UO) is always measured during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. It is a vital clinical indicator to monitor the severity of kidney dysfunction and guide treatment decisions.
Accurate measurement of urine output is essential for assessing fluid balance, kidney function, and the effectiveness of treatment interventions.
Choice D rationale:
Urine output (UO) is not greater than 500 mL/24 hours during the oliguric phase of acute renal failure. A urine output greater than 500 mL/24 hours would indicate a non-oliguric phase of acute renal failure or a potential recovery phase.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today