A client is admitted to an inpatient unit with a diagnosis of frontotemporal dementia. Which of the following aspects of a medical history would the nurse expect to see with this client? (Select All that Apply.)
Changes to behavior and personality
Past history of head trauma
Impaired judgment
Muscle stiffness and shuffling gait
Diagnosis of hypertension
Correct Answer : A,C,D
Choices A, C, and D: Changes to behavior and personality, Impaired judgment, Muscle stiffness and shuffling gait.
Choice A Reason:
Changes to behavior and personality are hallmark symptoms of frontotemporal dementia (FTD). This condition primarily affects the frontal and temporal lobes of the brain, which are responsible for behavior, personality, and language. Patients often exhibit socially inappropriate behaviors, apathy, and a decline in personal hygiene. These changes are among the earliest and most noticeable symptoms of FTD.
Choice B Reason:
While a past history of head trauma can be a risk factor for various types of dementia, it is not specifically associated with frontotemporal dementia. FTD is more commonly linked to genetic factors and specific protein abnormalities in the brain. Therefore, a history of head trauma is not a typical aspect of the medical history for FTD patients.
Choice C Reason:
Impaired judgment is a common symptom of frontotemporal dementia. The degeneration of the frontal lobes affects executive functions, including decision-making, problem-solving, and judgment. Patients may make poor decisions, exhibit risky behaviors, and have difficulty understanding the consequences of their actions.
Choice D Reason:
Muscle stiffness and a shuffling gait can occur in some forms of frontotemporal dementia, particularly in cases where the condition overlaps with motor neuron disease or Parkinsonism. These physical symptoms are less common than behavioral and cognitive symptoms but can still be present in some patients.
Choice E Reason:
A diagnosis of hypertension is not specifically related to frontotemporal dementia. While hypertension is a common condition that can coexist with any form of dementia, it is not a characteristic feature of FTD. The primary symptoms of FTD are related to changes in behavior, personality, and cognitive functions rather than vascular issues.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
Flumazenil is a benzodiazepine receptor antagonist used to reverse the effects of benzodiazepines like diazepam. It works by competitively inhibiting the action of benzodiazepines at the GABA receptor, thereby reversing sedation and other effects. Flumazenil is typically administered in cases of benzodiazepine overdose to counteract the sedative effects and restore normal respiratory function. However, it should be used cautiously as it can precipitate withdrawal and seizures in patients with long-term benzodiazepine use.
Choice B Reason:
Chlorpromazine is an antipsychotic medication primarily used to treat schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders. It is not indicated for the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose. Chlorpromazine works by blocking dopamine receptors in the brain, which helps to manage symptoms of psychosis but does not counteract the effects of benzodiazepines. Therefore, it would not be an appropriate choice in this scenario.
Choice C Reason:
Lithium carbonate is a mood stabilizer commonly used in the treatment of bipolar disorder. It helps to reduce the severity and frequency of mania and can also help to relieve or prevent bipolar depression. Lithium does not have any antagonistic effects on benzodiazepines and is not used in the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose. Thus, it would not be the correct medication to administer in this case.
Choice D Reason:
Methadone is a long-acting opioid used for pain management and as part of medication-assisted treatment for opioid use disorder. It works by binding to the same receptors in the brain as other opioids, helping to reduce withdrawal symptoms and cravings. Methadone does not counteract the effects of benzodiazepines and is not used in the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose. Therefore, it would not be an appropriate choice in this scenario.
Correct Answer is ["A","B","E"]
Explanation
Choice A Reason:
It is extremely important to maintain professional boundaries with clients.
Maintaining professional boundaries is crucial in nursing to ensure a therapeutic and trusting relationship between the nurse and the client. Crossing these boundaries can lead to ethical issues and compromise the care provided. In this scenario, the nurse allowed personal relationships to influence professional behavior, which is inappropriate and can undermine the client’s trust and the integrity of the nurse-client relationship.
Choice B Reason:
Countertransference may have been a factor in your actions with this client.
Countertransference occurs when a nurse’s personal feelings and experiences influence their professional interactions with a client. In this case, the nurse’s familiarity with the client as a childhood friend of a sibling may have led to biased actions, such as allowing the use of a personal mobile device and sharing confidential information. Recognizing and managing countertransference is essential to maintain objectivity and provide unbiased care.
Choice C Reason:
It would have been better if you called your sibling instead of texting.
This statement is not relevant to the primary issues at hand. Whether the nurse called or texted their sibling does not change the fact that sharing the client’s hospitalization status was a breach of confidentiality. The focus should be on the inappropriate disclosure of protected health information, not the method of communication.
Choice D Reason:
Policies can be amended for clients who are admitted voluntarily, not involuntarily.
This statement is incorrect. Policies regarding the use of personal mobile devices and confidentiality apply to all clients, regardless of whether they are admitted voluntarily or involuntarily. The nurse’s actions violated these policies, and the distinction between voluntary and involuntary admission does not justify the breach.
Choice E Reason:
You have violated HIPAA regulations by notifying your sibling of the client’s admission.
This is the correct response. The nurse violated HIPAA regulations by disclosing the client’s hospitalization status to their sibling without the client’s consent. HIPAA protects the privacy of individuals’ health information, and unauthorized disclosure is a serious violation that can result in legal and professional consequences.
Whether you are a student looking to ace your exams or a practicing nurse seeking to enhance your expertise , our nursing education contents will empower you with the confidence and competence to make a difference in the lives of patients and become a respected leader in the healthcare field.
Visit Naxlex, invest in your future and unlock endless possibilities with our unparalleled nursing education contents today
Report Wrong Answer on the Current Question
Do you disagree with the answer? If yes, what is your expected answer? Explain.
Kindly be descriptive with the issue you are facing.
