A client is admitted to the emergency department after using ecstasy. The nurse identifies this drug as belonging to what class?

Hallucinogen

Hypnotic

Opioid

Sedative

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is A

A) Correct. Ecstasy, also known as MDMA (3,4methylenedioxymethamphetamine), belongs to the hallucinogen class of drugs. It produces altered perceptions and sensations.

B) Incorrect. Hypnotics are drugs that promote sleep.
C) Incorrect. Opioids are a class of drugs that include substances like heroin and prescription pain medications.

D) Incorrect. Sedatives are drugs that calm or soothe and can also induce sleep.

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Correct Answer is A

Explanation

A. "As depression lifts, physical energy becomes available to carry out suicide." This statement highlights a critical consideration in the care of severely depressed clients. When a client's depression starts to improve due to antidepressant therapy, there may be a period where they have increased energy but have not yet gained full relief from their depressive thoughts. This can potentially increase the risk of carrying out suicidal thoughts or plans.

B. "Suicide may be precipitated by a variety of internal and external events." While this statement is true, it does not specifically address the importance of monitoring a client during antidepressant therapy.

C. "Suicidal clients have difficulty using social supports." This statement acknowledges a potential challenge for clients who are experiencing suicidal thoughts, but it does not directly relate to the need for close monitoring during antidepressant therapy.

D. "Suicide is an impulsive act that has no warning." This statement is not entirely accurate. While some suicides can be impulsive, many individuals give warning signs or exhibit changes in behavior before attempting suicide.

A. Institute reverse isolation B. Withhold the next dose of medication C. Begin high protein, high cholesterol diet D. Notify health care provider stat

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

A) Incorrect. Reverse isolation is not indicated in this situation. The client's symptoms are likely due to a side effect of the medication, not an infectious process.

B) Incorrect. While it may be necessary to withhold the next dose of medication, the client's symptoms require more immediate attention.

C) Incorrect. The client's symptoms are indicative of a serious adverse reaction, and dietary changes would not address the issue.

D) Correct. The client's symptoms, including severe muscle stiffness, difficulty swallowing, drooling, diaphoresis, and elevated vital signs, are indicative of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS), a potentially life-threatening side effect of antipsychotic medications like risperidone.
The nurse should notify the healthcare provider immediately for further guidance and intervention.

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A client is admitted to the emergency department after using ecstasy. The nurse identifies this drug as belonging to what class?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

Which statement provides the best rationale for why a nurse should closely monitor a severely depressed client during antidepressant therapy?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

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