A client is admitted to the intensive care unit (ICU) with a spinal cord injury (SCI) following a motor vehicle collision.
Which nurse should be contacted to coordinate the progression of the client's care?
Neurology unit supervisor.
Adult nurse practitioner.
Nurse case manager.
Risk management nurse.
The Correct Answer is C
Choice A rationale:
The neurology unit supervisor is not the most appropriate nurse to coordinate the progression of care for a client with a spinal cord injury (SCI). While they may have expertise in neurology, the nurse case manager is specifically trained to coordinate and manage the care of patients with complex conditions, including SCI. They can facilitate communication between various healthcare providers and ensure that the client receives comprehensive care throughout their stay.
Choice B rationale:
An adult nurse practitioner may have specialized knowledge in the care of adults, but they may not have the specific skills and training required to coordinate the care of a client with a spinal cord injury in the ICU. Nurse case managers are better equipped to manage complex cases and ensure the continuity of care for the client.
Choice D rationale:
A risk management nurse focuses on minimizing healthcare-related risks and ensuring the safety of patients and staff. While their role is essential, it is not the primary responsibility to coordinate the progression of care for a client with a spinal cord injury. The nurse case manager is better suited for this role as they specialize in care coordination.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice B: Advise the client that lifestyle changes often take several weeks to be effective.
Choice B rationale: Exercise is known to improve sleep quality and reduce the time it takes to fall asleep; however, these benefits may not be immediate. Lifestyle modifications, such as incorporating regular physical activity, typically require several weeks before noticeable improvements in sleep patterns and overall health are observed. By informing the client about this expected timeframe, the nurse promotes realistic expectations and encourages adherence to the exercise program.
Choice A rationale: Encouraging daily exercise to eliminate bedtime wakefulness may be counterproductive, as overexertion can lead to increased arousal and impaired sleep quality. Additionally, daily exercise might be too rigorous or impractical for some individuals, potentially leading to burnout or injury. It is essential to tailor exercise recommendations to the client's fitness level, preferences, and goals.
Choice C rationale: While obtaining information about the client's exercise schedule is helpful in assessing their adherence and progress, it does not directly address the issue of sleep onset difficulties. The nurse should focus on providing education and guidance on the expected timeline for observing sleep improvements with exercise.
Choice D rationale: Weight loss is a potential outcome of increased physical activity but is not directly correlated with improvements in sleep onset latency. Focusing solely on weight loss may overlook other essential aspects of sleep hygiene and healthy lifestyle changes. The nurse should emphasize the broader benefits of exercise and provide a comprehensive approach to addressing the client's concerns.
Correct Answer is C
Explanation
The correct answer is Choice C
Choice A rationale: This question prematurely assumes the client is experiencing command hallucinations, which are auditory hallucinations instructing the individual to perform specific actions, often dangerous. Scientifically, this bypasses the essential diagnostic step of characterizing the hallucination type. Without understanding onset, frequency, and context, asking about obedience risks escalating paranoia or defensiveness. Psychiatric assessment requires chronological and phenomenological data before evaluating risk. Prematurely probing intent may compromise rapport and hinder accurate clinical evaluation.
Choice B rationale: While substance-induced psychosis is a differential diagnosis, asking about hallucinogen use before establishing the nature and onset of symptoms may be perceived as accusatory. Scientifically, the DSM-5 criteria for substance-induced psychotic disorder require temporal correlation between substance use and symptom onset. Without knowing when the voices began, this question lacks diagnostic precision. A thorough psychiatric history must precede substance screening to avoid bias and ensure accurate etiological classification of hallucinations.
Choice C rationale: Establishing the onset of auditory hallucinations is foundational in psychiatric assessment. Scientifically, the timeline helps differentiate between transient, substance-induced, and chronic psychotic disorders such as schizophrenia. Early onset may suggest prodromal schizophrenia, while abrupt onset could indicate delirium or drug-induced psychosis. Understanding duration also informs risk stratification and treatment planning. This question respects clinical sequencing, allowing the nurse to gather essential data before exploring content, belief, or behavioral response to hallucinations.
Choice D rationale: Exploring the client’s belief about the reality of voices is part of assessing insight, but it should follow initial characterization of the hallucinations. Scientifically, insight evaluation helps determine the severity of psychosis and guides treatment adherence predictions. However, asking this prematurely may confuse or distress the client. Insight is typically assessed after establishing symptom chronology, frequency, and impact. Premature probing of belief risks misinterpretation and may hinder therapeutic engagement in early assessment stages.
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