A client is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should expect a decline in:

Hair loss

Serum glucose level

Bone demineralization

Menstrual flow

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is B

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Hair loss may not significantly decline with successful Cushing’s syndrome treatment. Excess cortisol causes hirsutism or hair thinning due to androgen excess or protein catabolism. Treatment reduces cortisol, but hair changes may persist due to slow hair growth cycles or irreversible follicular damage.

Choice B reason: Successful treatment of Cushing’s syndrome lowers serum glucose levels. Excess cortisol induces insulin resistance and gluconeogenesis, causing hyperglycemia. Reducing cortisol through treatment (e.g., surgery or medication) restores insulin sensitivity and reduces glucose production, normalizing blood sugar levels, a key indicator of effective management.

Choice C reason: Bone demineralization may not decline quickly with treatment. Chronic cortisol excess inhibits osteoblast activity and calcium absorption, causing osteoporosis. While treatment halts further bone loss, reversal is slow due to the time required for bone remodeling, making this less immediate than glucose normalization.

Choice D reason: Menstrual flow may not immediately increase with treatment. Cortisol excess disrupts gonadotropin release, causing amenorrhea. Restoring normal cortisol levels may improve menstrual cycles, but hormonal recovery is gradual, and changes in flow are less immediate or reliable than glucose level declines as a treatment outcome.

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Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Infection is not directly related to tissue hypoxia in iron deficiency anemia. Hypoxia results from low hemoglobin, reducing oxygen delivery, but it does not inherently cause infection. Infections may contribute to anemia in chronic disease but are not the primary issue in iron deficiency.

Choice B reason: Deficient fluid volume is not a primary concern in iron deficiency anemia. Impaired erythropoiesis reduces red blood cell production due to low iron, causing anemia, but fluid volume remains normal unless bleeding occurs. Fatigue from low oxygen capacity is more directly linked to the condition.

Choice C reason: Acute pain is not typical in iron deficiency anemia. Pain is associated with hemolytic anemias like sickle cell disease due to vaso-occlusion. Iron deficiency causes fatigue and dyspnea from low hemoglobin, not hemolysis or pain, making this an incorrect association.

Choice D reason: Fatigue related to decreased oxygen-carrying capacity is the most likely issue in iron deficiency anemia. Low iron impairs hemoglobin synthesis, reducing red blood cell oxygen transport, causing tissue hypoxia and fatigue, especially during exertion, directly reflecting the pathophysiology of the client’s condition.

A. Fluid intake is less than 2,500 ml/day B. Heart rate is 126 beats/minute C. Blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg D. Urine output measures more than 200 ml/hour

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

Reasoning:

Choice A reason: Effective treatment of diabetes insipidus, typically with desmopressin, restores ADH function, reducing excessive urine output and thirst. Fluid intake below 2,500 ml/day indicates improved water reabsorption in the kidneys, normalizing fluid balance and reducing polyuria, which is a key sign of successful management of this condition.

Choice B reason: A heart rate of 126 beats/minute indicates tachycardia, often a sign of dehydration or hypovolemia in untreated diabetes insipidus. Effective treatment should normalize heart rate by correcting fluid balance, so persistent tachycardia suggests ongoing fluid loss and ineffective treatment, not a successful therapeutic outcome.

Choice C reason: Blood pressure of 90/50 mm Hg indicates hypotension, which can result from severe dehydration in untreated diabetes insipidus. Effective treatment should stabilize blood pressure by restoring fluid volume through improved water reabsorption, making low blood pressure an indicator of poor treatment response rather than success.

Choice D reason: Urine output exceeding 200 ml/hour reflects polyuria, a primary symptom of untreated diabetes insipidus due to ADH deficiency. Effective treatment reduces urine output by enhancing renal water reabsorption, so high urine output indicates persistent disease activity, not a successful response to therapy.

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A client is being successfully treated for Cushing's syndrome. The nurse should expect a decline in:

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

An adult client has been diagnosed with iron deficiency anemia. Which is most likely based on this client’s health status?

Correct Answer is D

Explanation

Which outcome indicates that treatment of a client with diabetes insipidus has been effective?

Correct Answer is A

Explanation

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A client has been diagnosed with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH). Which of the following manifestations would be expected in this client?

The nurse observes the laboratory studies for a client in the hospital with fatigue, feeling cold all of the time, and hemoglobin of 8.6 g/dL and a hematocrit of 28%. What finding would be an indicator of iron-deficiency anemia?

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