A client is brought to the ED reporting fatigue, large amounts of bruising on the extremities, and abdominal pain localized in the left upper quadrant. A health history reveals the client has been treated for a sore throat three times in the past 2 months. Laboratory tests indicate severe anemia, significant neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia. Based on the symptoms, what could be the client’s diagnosis?
Iron deficiency anemia
Hemolytic anemia
Sickle cell anemia
Aplastic anemia
The Correct Answer is D
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Iron deficiency anemia causes fatigue and anemia due to low iron, reducing hemoglobin synthesis. However, it does not typically cause neutropenia, thrombocytopenia, or left upper quadrant pain. Bruising may occur, but the triad of pancytopenia and recent infections points more strongly to bone marrow failure.
Choice B reason: Hemolytic anemia involves red blood cell destruction, causing anemia and fatigue, but neutropenia and thrombocytopenia are not typical. Left upper quadrant pain may suggest splenomegaly, but the full pancytopenia and infection history align better with bone marrow suppression than hemolytic processes alone.
Choice C reason: Sickle cell anemia causes hemolytic anemia and pain from vaso-occlusion, potentially in the spleen (left upper quadrant). However, it does not typically cause neutropenia or thrombocytopenia. The client’s pancytopenia and recurrent infections suggest a broader bone marrow issue, not specific to sickle cell disease.
Choice D reason: Aplastic anemia is characterized by bone marrow failure, leading to pancytopenia (anemia, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia), causing fatigue, bruising, and infection susceptibility. Left upper quadrant pain may indicate splenomegaly or bleeding. The history of recurrent infections supports neutropenia from bone marrow suppression, making this the most likely diagnosis.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Radioimmunoassay measures hormone levels, such as ADH, but is not the initial test for a suspected pituitary tumor. It may confirm hormonal deficiencies but cannot visualize structural abnormalities like tumors, which are better assessed by imaging techniques like MRI, making it a secondary diagnostic tool in this context.
Choice B reason: Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) is the initial test for a suspected pituitary tumor. It provides detailed images of the pituitary gland, identifying structural abnormalities like tumors that may cause diabetes insipidus by disrupting ADH production. MRI is non-invasive and highly sensitive for detecting pituitary lesions, guiding further management.
Choice C reason: Radioactive iodine uptake tests assess thyroid function, not pituitary tumors. These tests are used for thyroid disorders like hyperthyroidism, which are unrelated to diabetes insipidus or pituitary pathology. They do not visualize the pituitary gland or confirm structural causes of ADH deficiency.
Choice D reason: A nuclear scan, such as a bone or thyroid scan, is not used to diagnose pituitary tumors. It assesses other conditions, like bone metastases or thyroid activity, but lacks specificity for pituitary imaging. MRI is the preferred modality for visualizing pituitary abnormalities causing diabetes insipidus.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Reasoning:
Choice A reason: Palpating lymph nodes and tonsils is relevant for assessing infections or malignancies but is not a primary intervention for thrombocytopenia. Corticosteroids treat thrombocytopenia by suppressing autoimmune platelet destruction, and the focus is on bleeding prevention, not lymphoid assessment, which is secondary to managing low platelet counts.
Choice B reason: Eliminating aspirin and NSAIDs is critical in thrombocytopenia, as these drugs inhibit platelet function, increasing bleeding risk in patients with low platelet counts. Corticosteroids improve platelet production, but concurrent use of antiplatelet drugs could exacerbate bleeding tendencies, making their elimination a primary nursing intervention.
Choice C reason: Gradually tapering corticosteroids is important to prevent adrenal suppression but is not the primary intervention during initial therapy for thrombocytopenia. The immediate focus is on preventing bleeding complications due to low platelets, with tapering being a later consideration once platelet counts stabilize.
Choice D reason: Examining extremities for redness may detect infection or inflammation but is not the primary intervention for thrombocytopenia. Bleeding risk from low platelets is the main concern, and while redness could indicate complications, eliminating drugs that impair platelet function is more critical to prevent hemorrhage.
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