A client is experiencing respiratory depression, constipation, nausea and vomiting, and hypotension after receiving pain medication. Which class of analgesics did this client most likely receive?

Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs

Cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors

Opioid analgesics

Non-opioid pain medications

Answer and Explanation

The Correct Answer is C

A. Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs: These typically cause gastrointestinal upset and potential bleeding but are less likely to cause respiratory depression, constipation, or hypotension.
B. Cyclooxygenase-2 inhibitors: These are a subset of NSAIDs with fewer gastrointestinal side effects but do not generally cause respiratory depression or hypotension.
C. Opioid analgesics: This is the correct choice. Opioid analgesics are known to cause respiratory depression, constipation, nausea, vomiting, and hypotension.
D. Non-opioid pain medications: These include medications like acetaminophen and NSAIDs, which are less likely to cause respiratory depression or hypotension.

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Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A. Serum glucose and a Complete Blood Count: While a complete blood count (CBC) is useful in assessing overall health, serum glucose is less relevant in the context of renal disease. The focus should be on kidney function rather than glucose levels.
B. Arterial blood gas and coagulation tests: Arterial blood gas (ABG) and coagulation tests may be important for other conditions, but they are not specifically targeted to evaluate renal function or related preoperative risks in renal disease.
C. Serum creatinine and a Basic Metabolic Panel: This is the correct choice as serum creatinine is a key marker of kidney function, and a Basic Metabolic Panel (BMP) provides information on electrolyte levels and overall metabolic status, which are crucial in evaluating the impact of renal disease on surgery.
D. Chest X-ray and cardiac enzymes: These tests are more relevant for evaluating cardiac function and lung status rather than directly assessing kidney function, which is the primary concern in the context of renal disease.

A. Tell the client he can no longer have any more pain medication B. Notify the prescribing physician C. Administer half the dose of morphine, 2 mg IV D. Administer 4 mg of morphine IV as ordered

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

A. Tell the client he can no longer have any more pain medication: This is not appropriate. The client’s severe pain needs to be managed, but the current vital signs suggest a need for careful evaluation before administration.
B. Notify the prescribing physician: This is the correct choice. The client's blood pressure and respiratory rate are significantly low, which could be exacerbated by morphine. The physician needs to be informed to reassess pain management and possibly adjust the treatment.
C. Administer half the dose of morphine, 2 mg IV: Given the client's low blood pressure and respiratory rate, any morphine administration could worsen these issues. Adjusting the dose without physician guidance is not appropriate.
D. Administer 4 mg of morphine IV as ordered: Administering the full dose without addressing the client’s low blood pressure and respiratory rate could lead to severe complications.

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A client is experiencing respiratory depression, constipation, nausea and vomiting, and hypotension after receiving pain medication. Which class of analgesics did this client most likely receive?

Nursing Test Bank

Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams

During a preoperative review of systems, the client reveals a history of renal disease. This finding suggests the need for which relevant preoperative diagnostic tests?

Correct Answer is C

Explanation

A client indicates to the nurse a pain level of 8 out of 10. The nurse notes the client has an order for morphine 4 mg IV Q 6 hr PRN for moderate to severe pain. The client's blood pressure is 80/54 mm Hg, respirations 10 breaths/min, and pulse 62 beats/min. Which action should the nurse take?

Correct Answer is B

Explanation

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