A client is ordered to receive a bolus of 200 mL of NSS in 35 minutes. At what rate should the nurse set the IV pump? (Use a preceding zero if necessary. Do not use trailing zeros. Round to the nearest tenth if necessary)
The Correct Answer is ["342.9"]
To calculate the IV pump rate in mL/hr, use the formula:
Rate (mL/hr) = (Total Volume in mL ÷ Time in minutes) × 60
Given:
Volume = 200 mL
Time = 35 minutes
Rate = (200 ÷ 35) × 60 = 5.7143 × 60 = 342.86
Rounded to the nearest tenth:
342.9 mL/hr
The nurse should set the IV pump to 342.9 mL/hr.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
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Correct Answer is A
Explanation
A. who reports a change in pattern of their usual shortness of breath: A sudden or change in the pattern of shortness of breath could be indicative of a serious, acute problem, such as a pulmonary embolism, heart failure, or worsening respiratory condition. The nurse should assess this patient first, as this change could suggest a deterioration in the patient's condition that needs immediate intervention.
B. reports flank pain 7 on a (0-10) scale 15 min after getting an oral analgesic: This is concerning, but it is not an immediate emergency. The pain might be related to a kidney issue or post-surgical pain, but since the patient was recently given an analgesic, the pain level may be expected to decrease with further medication or interventions. The nurse should assess, but this can be addressed after more critical issues are ruled out.
C. with serosanguinous drainage in a JP drain post-op day 3: While serosanguinous drainage is common in the early postoperative period, it is important to monitor the amount and color of drainage. However, unless there is a significant increase in drainage, or signs of infection, this is not as urgent as other concerns. The nurse can assess this patient after addressing more acute symptoms.
D. bilateral wheezes after walking 40 feet (12 meters), pulse ax 96 on RA: While wheezing may indicate asthma or COPD exacerbation, the fact that the patient’s pulse is stable and they are able to walk a short distance suggests that this issue is more chronic and less emergent. The nurse should assess this patient, but it is less critical than the other cases.
Correct Answer is D
Explanation
A. Urinary retention can occur in Guillain-Barre Syndrome due to autonomic dysfunction, but it is not the most life-threatening complication.
B. Hypertension may be seen as part of autonomic instability in GBS, but it is usually not the primary concern.
C. Hyperglycemia is not a typical complication of GBS itself, unless related to treatments like IV corticosteroids (which are not first-line therapy for GBS) or comorbid conditions.
D. Guillain-Barre Syndrome causes progressive ascending paralysis, which can eventually involve the respiratory muscles. Monitoring for respiratory failure is critical, as it can develop rapidly and requires immediate intervention, such as mechanical ventilation.
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