A client is ordered to receive insulin lispro (Humalog) at mealtimes. When should the nurse instruct the client to administer the medication?
15 minutes after eating
5 minutes before eating
10 minutes after eating
30 minutes before eating .
The Correct Answer is B
Choice A rationale:
Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin that begins to work within 15 minutes of injection. If administered 15 minutes after eating, it may not be able to effectively control the rise in blood glucose levels that occurs after a meal. This could lead to hyperglycemia, which can have negative short-term and long-term health consequences.
Administering insulin lispro 15 minutes after eating would delay its action and potentially lead to suboptimal blood glucose control. It's crucial to match the timing of insulin administration with the meal to ensure optimal glucose management.
Choice C rationale:
Administering insulin lispro 10 minutes after eating would also delay its action. While not as delayed as 15 minutes, it still wouldn't align with the peak of meal-related glucose absorption, potentially leading to suboptimal glucose control.
Choice D rationale:
Insulin lispro has a shorter duration of action compared to regular insulin. Administering it 30 minutes before eating could lead to hypoglycemia, a condition characterized by low blood glucose levels. Hypoglycemia can cause a variety of symptoms, including shakiness, sweating, dizziness, confusion, and even loss of consciousness.
It's essential to closely align the timing of rapid-acting insulins like insulin lispro with mealtimes to minimize the risk of hypoglycemia.
Nursing Test Bank
Naxlex Comprehensive Predictor Exams
Related Questions
Correct Answer is A
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Sildenafil (Viagra) is a phosphodiesterase-5 (PDE-5) inhibitor that is primarily used to treat erectile dysfunction. However, it also has vasodilatory effects, meaning it widens blood vessels. This can lead to a significant drop in blood pressure, especially when combined with nitroglycerin, another potent vasodilator.
Nitroglycerin is commonly used to treat chest pain (angina) and heart failure. It works by relaxing the smooth muscles in blood vessels, which allows them to widen and increase blood flow to the heart. This can help to relieve chest pain and improve heart function.
When sildenafil and nitroglycerin are taken together, their combined vasodilatory effects can cause a severe drop in blood pressure, known as hypotension. This can lead to a number of serious complications, including: dizziness, lightheadedness, fainting, heart attack, stroke.
The risk of hypotension is particularly high in patients who are already taking other medications that can lower blood pressure, such as alpha-blockers or nitrates. It is also important to note that the effects of sildenafil can last for up to 24-48 hours, so it is important to avoid taking nitroglycerin within this timeframe.
Due to the significant risk of hypotension, it is generally recommended that sildenafil be avoided within 24-48 hours of nitroglycerin administration.
Rationales for other choices:
Choice B: Aspirin
Aspirin is an antiplatelet medication that is often used to prevent blood clots. It does not have significant vasodilatory effects and does not interact with nitroglycerin in a way that would contraindicate its use.
Choice C: Adenosine
Adenosine is a medication that is used to treat certain types of arrhythmias (irregular heartbeats). It can cause a brief drop in blood pressure, but this effect is usually mild and transient. Adenosine does not interact with nitroglycerin in a way that would contraindicate its use.
Choice D: Oxygen
Oxygen is a gas that is often used to treat patients with respiratory problems. It does not have any direct vasodilatory effects and does not interact with nitroglycerin.
Correct Answer is B
Explanation
Choice A rationale:
Requesting an order for morphine sulfate IV 2 mg over 1-5 minutes would not be appropriate at this time for several reasons: The patient has already received a dose of 4 mg 15 minutes ago, and it has not been effective in relieving the chest pain.
The patient is showing signs of increased respiratory effort, which could be a sign of respiratory depression. Administering an additional dose of morphine could worsen the respiratory depression.
The patient's heart rate is 82 beats per minute, which is within the normal range.
The patient's blood pressure is 135/88 mm Hg, which is also within the normal range.
Choice C rationale:
Administering naloxone (Narcan) to counteract respiratory depression would not be appropriate at this time because the patient is not showing signs of severe respiratory depression. Naloxone is a medication that is used to reverse the effects of opioid overdose. It is typically only used in situations where the patient is experiencing life-threatening respiratory depression.
Choice D rationale:
Administering morphine sulfate IV 4 mg over 1-5 minutes would not be appropriate for the reasons listed above. It could worsen the patient's respiratory depression and potentially lead to other complications.
Choice B is the best answer because it is the most conservative and safest option. By withholding the next dose of morphine and informing the provider about the patient's symptoms, the nurse can ensure that the patient receives the appropriate care and that any potential complications are avoided.
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